A nurse is preparing to administer darbepoetin 0.45 mcg/kg subcutaneous once weekly to a client who weighs 198 lb. The amount available is Darbepoetin 300 mcg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
(Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["0.1"]
To calculate the dose of darbepoetin that the nurse should administer, we can follow these steps:
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms:
198 lb ÷ 2.2 = 89.82 kg (rounded to two decimal places)
Calculate the dose of darbepoetin:
0.45 mcg/kg × 89.82 kg = 40.41 mcg
Determine the volume of darbepoetin needed using the available concentration:
40.41 mcg ÷ 300 mcg/mL = 0.1347 mL
Rounding to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 0.1 mL of darbepoetin subcutaneously once weekly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because labetalol is a safe and effective medication for treating hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure by reducing the heart rate and the force of contraction. It does not affect the blood flow to the placenta or the fetus.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because labetalol is not contraindicated for smokers. However, smoking is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease and should be discouraged by the nurse. Smoking can increase blood pressure, heart rate, and the risk of blood clots.
Choice C reason: This is correct because labetalol is contraindicated for clients with a history of uncontrolled asthma. Labetalol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can block the beta-2 receptors in the lungs and cause bronchoconstriction. This can worsen asthma symptoms and trigger an asthma attack.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because labetalol is a suitable medication for clients who had a myocardial infarction. Labetalol can prevent further damage to the heart muscle by reducing the oxygen demand and the workload of the heart. It can also prevent arrhythmias and angina.
Correct Answer is ["25"]
Explanation
To calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min) for the administration of clindamycin, we can follow these steps:
First, we need to determine the total number of minutes for the infusion, which is given as 1 hour:
1 hour × 60 minutes/hour = 60 minutes
Next, we calculate the total number of drops needed for the infusion:
The total volume to be infused is 100 mL.
The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL.
100 mL × 15 gtt/mL = 1500 gtt
Calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute:
1500 gtt ÷ 60 min = 25 gtt/min
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the IV flow rate to deliver 25 gtt/min.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.