The nurse is continuing to care for the adolescent.
Admission Assessment
1400:
Adolescent brought to emergency department by parents following a fall while skateboarding. Adolescent reports pain in their right leg as 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 and is unable to bear weight.
Adolescent is awake, alert, and oriented x 3. Lungs clear, respirations even and regular. S1 and S2 with regular rate and rhythm. Abdomen soft and nontender with active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Right lower extremity with open wound and displaced bone. Right lower extremity pulse +1, extremity cool to touch, edema present, capillary refill 4 seconds.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?
Elevate the right leg above heart level.
Prepare the adolescent for surgery.
Remove the splint.
Apply ice to the affected extremity.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Elevate the right leg above heart level. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because elevating the leg above heart level can increase blood pressure in the injured area and worsen bleeding and swelling.
B. Prepare the adolescent for surgery. This is anticipated for the adolescent because they have an open fracture with bone displacement, which requires surgical intervention to reduce the risk of infection and complications.
C. Remove the splint. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because removing the splint can cause further damage to the bone and soft tissues and increase pain and bleeding.
D. Apply ice to the affected extremity. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because applying ice can decrease blood flow to the injured area and impair healing and sensation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
A. Postpartum hemorrhage is incorrect because the client has scant lochia rubra and a firm fundus at the umbilicus, which indicate normal uterine involution and bleeding.
B. Seizures is correct because the client has signs of severe preeclampsia, such as headache, blurred vision, nausea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. These are indications of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, which can lead to seizures or eclampsia.
C. Hyperglycemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes in the client's history or findings.
D. Hypoxemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of respiratory distress or impaired gas exchange in the client's history or findings.
E. Infection is incorrect because the client has no signs of infection, such as fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or elevated WBC count.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hypoxemia is a condition of low oxygen levels in the blood. PEEP can actually improve oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse and increasing functional residual capacity.
B. Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition of air accumulation in the pleural space that causes increased intrathoracic pressure and compresses the lungs, heart, and great vessels. PEEP can increase the risk of tension pneumothorax by creating excessive positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.
C. Malignant hypertension is a severe form of high blood pressure that can cause organ damage and stroke. PEEP can cause a transient increase in blood pressure due to increased intrathoracic pressure, but it does not cause malignant hypertension.
D. Atelectasis is a condition of partial or complete lung collapse due to alveolar collapse or obstruction. PEEP can prevent or treat atelectasis by maintaining positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.
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