The nurse is continuing to care for the adolescent.
Admission Assessment
1400:
Adolescent brought to emergency department by parents following a fall while skateboarding. Adolescent reports pain in their right leg as 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 and is unable to bear weight.
Adolescent is awake, alert, and oriented x 3. Lungs clear, respirations even and regular. S1 and S2 with regular rate and rhythm. Abdomen soft and nontender with active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Right lower extremity with open wound and displaced bone. Right lower extremity pulse +1, extremity cool to touch, edema present, capillary refill 4 seconds.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?
Elevate the right leg above heart level.
Prepare the adolescent for surgery.
Remove the splint.
Apply ice to the affected extremity.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Elevate the right leg above heart level. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because elevating the leg above heart level can increase blood pressure in the injured area and worsen bleeding and swelling.
B. Prepare the adolescent for surgery. This is anticipated for the adolescent because they have an open fracture with bone displacement, which requires surgical intervention to reduce the risk of infection and complications.
C. Remove the splint. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because removing the splint can cause further damage to the bone and soft tissues and increase pain and bleeding.
D. Apply ice to the affected extremity. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because applying ice can decrease blood flow to the injured area and impair healing and sensation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Incorrect. The client does not have respiratory alkalosis because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a low PaCO2 (less than 35 mm Hg) and a high pH (greater than 7.45).
B. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic alkalosis because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high HCO3 (greater than 26 mEq/L) and a high pH (greater than 7.45).
C. Correct. The client has respiratory acidosis because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a high PaCO2 (greater than 45 mm Hg) and a low pH (less than 7.35).
D. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic acidosis because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low HCO3 (less than 22 mEq/L) and a low pH (less than 7.35).
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administer epinephrine subcutaneously. This is not the necessary action to be taken. Epinephrine is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis). However, in this case, the client is experiencing a febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction, not an allergic reaction.
Choice B reason:
Place the blood bag in a biohazard bag before discarding. This is not the necessary action to be taken by the nurse. Proper disposal of biohazardous materials is essential, but in this situation, the nurse's priority is to address the client's condition and not the disposal of the blood bag.
Choice C reason:
Documentation of the transfusion reaction is crucial for the client's medical history and for future reference. The nurse should record the client's signs and symptoms, the actions taken, and any other relevant information related to the reaction.
Choice D reason
Infuse 500 ml lactated Ringer's IV.This is not necessary action to be taken by the nurse because there is no indication for infusing lactated Ringer's solution in response to the transfusion reaction described. Treatment for febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions generally involves stopping the transfusion, administering antipyretics (like acetaminophen) if necessary, and providing supportive care as needed.
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