The nurse is continuing to care for the adolescent.
Admission Assessment
1400:
Adolescent brought to emergency department by parents following a fall while skateboarding. Adolescent reports pain in their right leg as 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 and is unable to bear weight.
Adolescent is awake, alert, and oriented x 3. Lungs clear, respirations even and regular. S1 and S2 with regular rate and rhythm. Abdomen soft and nontender with active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Right lower extremity with open wound and displaced bone. Right lower extremity pulse +1, extremity cool to touch, edema present, capillary refill 4 seconds.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?
Elevate the right leg above heart level.
Prepare the adolescent for surgery.
Remove the splint.
Apply ice to the affected extremity.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Elevate the right leg above heart level. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because elevating the leg above heart level can increase blood pressure in the injured area and worsen bleeding and swelling.
B. Prepare the adolescent for surgery. This is anticipated for the adolescent because they have an open fracture with bone displacement, which requires surgical intervention to reduce the risk of infection and complications.
C. Remove the splint. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because removing the splint can cause further damage to the bone and soft tissues and increase pain and bleeding.
D. Apply ice to the affected extremity. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because applying ice can decrease blood flow to the injured area and impair healing and sensation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is correct because discomfort while walking can indicate genital trauma or infection, which are possible signs of sexual abuse.
B. This is incorrect because thin extremities can be caused by many factors, such as malnutrition, genetic disorders, or chronic diseases, that are not necessarily related to sexual abuse.
C. This is incorrect because bruises on the upper back can result from accidental injuries, such as falls or bumps, or from physical abuse, such as hitting or kicking, but not specifically from sexual abuse.
D. This is incorrect because a stained shirt can be due to poor hygiene, food spills, or environmental factors, but not necessarily from sexual abuse.
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