The nurse is caring for an adolescent client diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), who is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin) therapy. The client reports and questions the nurse why they have lost 10 pounds in 2-months. Which of the following should be the appropriate response by the nurse?
The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite.
Side effects of Ritalin cause nausea; therefore, caloric intake is decreased.
Increased ability to concentrate allows the client to focus on activities rather than food.
Hyperactivity seen in ADHD causes increased caloric expenditure.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed for ADHD. One of its well-documented side effects is appetite suppression, which can lead to weight loss. This is the most accurate and direct explanation for the weight loss observed in the adolescent client.
B. Side effects of Ritalin cause nausea; therefore, caloric intake is decreased. While nausea can occur with methylphenidate, it is not the primary reason for weight loss. The main mechanism is appetite suppression rather than a direct reduction in caloric intake due to nausea. This response is less accurate than option A.
C. Increased ability to concentrate allows the client to focus on activities rather than food: While methylphenidate can improve concentration, this explanation does not directly address the physiological cause of weight loss. It is the decrease in appetite due to the drug's effects on neurotransmitters that leads to weight loss, not the increased focus on activities .
D. Hyperactivity seen in ADHD causes increased caloric expenditure: Hyperactivity itself can lead to higher caloric expenditure, but this is not directly related to the weight loss caused by methylphenidate. The primary reason for the weight loss in this case is the appetite suppression due to the medication, not increased activity .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Echolalia: Echolalia, the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others, is a common characteristic of autism spectrum disorder. It can be part of the individual’s attempt to communicate or self-stimulate and may be indicative of difficulties in expressive language development.
B. Ambivalence: Ambivalence, the state of having mixed feelings or contradictory ideas about something or someone, is more commonly associated with conditions like schizophrenia, not ASD.
C. Expressive affect: Individuals with ASD often have difficulties with expressive affect, meaning they may show limited emotional expression, which contrasts with the term "expressive affect" suggesting full emotional expression.
D. Associative looseness: Associative looseness, a symptom where a person’s thoughts are disconnected and fragmented, is more characteristic of schizophrenia than ASD.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Phase I: This is the tension-building phase, where minor incidents of abuse occur, and the victim often tries to placate the abuser to avoid escalation.
B. Phase III: This is the honeymoon phase, where the abuser may apologize, show remorse, and promise that the abuse will not happen again. The victim may also experience a period of denial and hope for change.
C. Phase II: This is the acute battering incident, where the abuse reaches a peak and the victim is physically harmed. The client's statement and the injury indicate they are in this phase.
D. Phase IV: There is no recognized "Phase IV" in the cycle of abuse. The standard model includes tension-building, acute battering, and the honeymoon phases.
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