The nurse is caring for an adolescent client diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), who is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin) therapy. The client reports and questions the nurse why they have lost 10 pounds in 2-months. Which of the following should be the appropriate response by the nurse?
The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite.
Side effects of Ritalin cause nausea; therefore, caloric intake is decreased.
Increased ability to concentrate allows the client to focus on activities rather than food.
Hyperactivity seen in ADHD causes increased caloric expenditure.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The pharmacological action of Ritalin causes a decrease in appetite. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed for ADHD. One of its well-documented side effects is appetite suppression, which can lead to weight loss. This is the most accurate and direct explanation for the weight loss observed in the adolescent client.
B. Side effects of Ritalin cause nausea; therefore, caloric intake is decreased. While nausea can occur with methylphenidate, it is not the primary reason for weight loss. The main mechanism is appetite suppression rather than a direct reduction in caloric intake due to nausea. This response is less accurate than option A.
C. Increased ability to concentrate allows the client to focus on activities rather than food: While methylphenidate can improve concentration, this explanation does not directly address the physiological cause of weight loss. It is the decrease in appetite due to the drug's effects on neurotransmitters that leads to weight loss, not the increased focus on activities .
D. Hyperactivity seen in ADHD causes increased caloric expenditure: Hyperactivity itself can lead to higher caloric expenditure, but this is not directly related to the weight loss caused by methylphenidate. The primary reason for the weight loss in this case is the appetite suppression due to the medication, not increased activity .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. Necklace: This can be a strangulation risk and should be removed from the client’s belongings.
B. Lace-up tennis shoes: The laces can be used for self-harm or strangulation and should be removed.
C. Nylon ankle socks: These are generally safe and do not pose a risk.
D. Cotton underwear: This is also considered safe and does not pose a significant risk.
E. Glass framed picture of the client's partner: The glass can be broken and used for self-harm, making it unsafe for a client with recent suicidal behavior.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Requiring frequent reassurance from others: This is more characteristic of dependent personality disorder, where individuals seek constant reassurance.
B. Inflated sense of self: This is a trait of narcissistic personality disorder, not paranoid personality disorder.
C. Lack of feelings of remorse: This is typical of antisocial personality disorder.
D. Suspiciousness of others: Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by pervasive distrust and suspicion of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent.
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