The nurse is caring for a patient on a telemetry unit who has a regular heart rhythm and rate of 60 beats/min; a P wave precedes each QRS complex, and the PR interval is 0.20 seconds. Additional vital signs are: blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and temperature 98.8°F (37°C). All of these medications are available on the medication record. What action will the nurse take?
Continue to monitor.
Administer clonidine.
Administer atropine.
Administer digoxin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Continuing to monitor is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The patient has a regular heart rhythm and a heart rate of 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia. The PR interval is 0.20 seconds, which is at the upper limit of normal. The patient’s vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 118/68 mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.8°F (37°C). There are no signs of hemodynamic instability or symptoms that would necessitate immediate intervention. Therefore, ongoing monitoring is sufficient to ensure the patient’s condition remains stable.
Choice B Reason:
Administering clonidine is not appropriate in this situation. Clonidine is an antihypertensive medication that can lower blood pressure and heart rate. Given that the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate are within normal ranges, administering clonidine could potentially cause hypotension and bradycardia, leading to adverse effects. Therefore, clonidine is not indicated for this patient.
Choice C Reason:
Administering atropine is not necessary for this patient. Atropine is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the heart rate is abnormally slow and causing symptoms such as dizziness, hypotension, or syncope. In this case, the patient’s heart rate is 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia, and there are no symptoms indicating the need for atropine. Therefore, atropine is not required.
Choice D Reason:
Administering digoxin is also not appropriate. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and certain types of arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation. It can slow the heart rate and increase the force of cardiac contractions. In this scenario, the patient does not have any indications for digoxin therapy, such as heart failure or atrial fibrillation, and their heart rate is already within the normal range. Therefore, digoxin is not indicated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Baclofen is primarily used to treat muscle symptoms caused by multiple sclerosis, including muscle spasms, stiffness, and pain1. It acts on the spinal cord nerves to decrease the number and severity of muscle spasms, thereby improving muscle movement2. The effectiveness of baclofen in managing multiple sclerosis symptoms is best evaluated by assessing the reduction in muscle spasms.
Choice B reason:
While mood and affect are important aspects of a patient’s overall well-being, they are not the primary indicators of baclofen’s effectiveness. Baclofen does not have a direct impact on mood and affect, as its main function is to relieve muscle spasms and improve muscle movement.
Choice C reason:
Appetite is not a primary concern when evaluating the effectiveness of baclofen. This medication is not known to significantly affect appetite. The main therapeutic goal of baclofen is to reduce muscle spasms and improve mobility in patients with multiple sclerosis.
Choice D reason:
Sleep pattern, although important for overall health, is not the primary measure of baclofen’s effectiveness. Baclofen’s primary role is to alleviate muscle spasms and improve muscle function. While it may have some impact on sleep due to its muscle-relaxing properties, this is not the main criterion for evaluating its effectiveness.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is not at the highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). While GERD can be associated with OSA, it is not a primary risk factor. The main risk factors for OSA include obesity, age, and anatomical features that can obstruct the airway. Therefore, this individual is not at the greatest risk compared to others.
Choice B Reason:
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight is at significant risk for developing OSA. Obesity is one of the most critical risk factors for OSA because excess weight can lead to fat deposits around the upper airway, which can obstruct breathing during sleep. Additionally, being overweight increases the likelihood of other conditions that can exacerbate OSA, such as hypertension and metabolic syndrome.
Choice C Reason:
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant may experience temporary sleep disturbances, including snoring and mild sleep apnea, due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure. However, pregnancy-related sleep apnea is usually transient and resolves after childbirth. Therefore, while she may have an increased risk during pregnancy, it is not as significant as the risk posed by obesity.
Choice D Reason:
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an increased risk of OSA, as diabetes is associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome, which are risk factors for OSA. However, the presence of diabetes alone does not pose as high a risk as obesity. Therefore, while this individual is at risk, it is not as high as the risk associated with being significantly overweight.
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