You are caring for a client in the ED with B/P 254/139 mm Hg. Which of the following actions would you take first?
Elevate the head of the client’s bed
Contact the Rapid Response Team
Tell the client to report vision changes
Insert a peripheral IV
Initiate seizure precautions
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Elevating the head of the client’s bed can help reduce blood pressure slightly by promoting venous return and decreasing intracranial pressure. However, this action alone is not sufficient to address the severe hypertension (254/139 mm Hg) the client is experiencing. Immediate medical intervention is required to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage.
Choice B reason:
Contacting the Rapid Response Team is the highest priority action. The Rapid Response Team is trained to handle critical situations and can provide immediate interventions to stabilize the client’s condition. Severe hypertension at this level requires urgent medical attention to prevent life-threatening complications. The team can administer medications to lower blood pressure quickly and monitor the client closely.
Choice C reason:
Telling the client to report vision changes is important because vision changes can indicate hypertensive retinopathy or increased intracranial pressure. However, this action is not the immediate priority. The client’s blood pressure needs to be controlled urgently to prevent further complications.
Choice D reason:
Inserting a peripheral IV is necessary for administering medications and fluids. While this is an important step, it should follow the immediate action of contacting the Rapid Response Team. The team can then use the IV access to administer antihypertensive medications promptly.
Choice E reason:
Initiating seizure precautions is important because severe hypertension can lead to seizures. However, this action is not the first priority. The primary focus should be on stabilizing the client’s blood pressure through immediate medical intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Provide continued sedation.
Providing continued sedation is not typically necessary after a cardioversion. The sedation used during the procedure is usually short-acting, and the client should begin to wake up shortly after the procedure is completed. Continuous sedation is not required unless there are specific medical reasons, which should be determined by the healthcare provider.
Choice B Reason:
Remove crash cart from the room.
The crash cart should remain in the room until the client is fully stable. Removing it immediately after the procedure is not advisable because the client may still be at risk for complications such as arrhythmias or other cardiac events. Keeping the crash cart nearby ensures that emergency equipment is readily available if needed.
Choice C Reason:
Assess the chest for burns.
Assessing the chest for burns is an important nursing action following a cardioversion. The electrical shock delivered during the procedure can cause burns on the skin where the electrodes were placed. It is essential to check for any signs of burns or skin irritation and provide appropriate care if needed.
Choice D Reason:
Ensure electrodes are in place for continued monitoring.
Ensuring that the electrodes are in place for continued monitoring is crucial. Continuous cardiac monitoring is necessary to observe the client’s heart rhythm and detect any potential complications or recurrence of arrhythmias. Proper placement and function of the electrodes are essential for accurate monitoring.
Choice E Reason:
Document results of the procedure.
Documenting the results of the procedure is a critical nursing action. Accurate documentation includes noting the client’s response to the cardioversion, any complications, and the current heart rhythm. This information is vital for ongoing care and communication with the healthcare team.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: He is NPO until the speech-language pathologist performs a swallowing evaluation.
When a client is admitted with a stroke, especially one affecting the left side, there is a significant risk of dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing. This can lead to choking and aspiration, which can cause pneumonia and other complications. Therefore, it is crucial to keep the client NPO (nothing by mouth) until a speech-language pathologist can perform a thorough swallowing evaluation. This ensures that the client can safely swallow without the risk of aspiration. The speech-language pathologist will assess the client’s ability to swallow different textures and consistencies of food and liquids and provide recommendations for safe feeding.

Choice B: Be sure to sit him up when you are feeding him to make him feel more natural.
While sitting the client up during feeding is a good practice to reduce the risk of aspiration, it is not sufficient on its own for a client who has just had a stroke. Without a proper swallowing evaluation, feeding the client could still pose a significant risk. Therefore, this choice is not the most appropriate response.
Choice C: You may give him a full-liquid diet, but please avoid solid foods until he gets stronger.
A full-liquid diet might seem like a safer option, but it still poses a risk of aspiration if the client has dysphagia. Without a swallowing evaluation, it is not safe to assume that the client can handle even a full-liquid diet. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate.
Choice D: Just be sure to add some thickener in his liquids to prevent choking and aspiration.
Adding thickener to liquids can help some clients with dysphagia, but it is not a one-size-fits-all solution. The appropriate consistency of liquids should be determined by a speech-language pathologist after a swallowing evaluation. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate without a prior assessment.
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