The nurse is caring for a client with acute heart failure who is severely dyspneic and extremely anxious. The nurse anticipates that increased cardiac output and decreased anxiety may be promoted by the IV administration of:
diltiazem.
nitroglycerine.
verapamil.
morphine.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C. Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D. Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Reporting the findings and anticipating a prescription for amiodarone may be necessary later, but the first step is to assess the patient's immediate condition (unresponsiveness, pulse status, etc.).
B. Although increasing monitor sensitivity and initiating a rapid response call might be helpful, these actions come after assessing the patient’s condition. If the patient is in distress or unresponsive, the nurse needs to check for a pulse and intervene right away.
C. This is a crucial action if the patient is unresponsive and pulseless (cardiac arrest). If the patient is found to be unresponsive and pulseless, starting chest compressions immediately and preparing for defibrillation is the next step. However, the first action is to check for pulse and responsiveness.
Why it's incorrect: Compressions and defibrillation are correct actions if the patient is pulseless, but before taking these steps, the nurse must assess the patient for responsiveness and check the carotid pulse. Starting CPR and preparing defibrillation without verifying the patient's condition could delay appropriate care.
D. Checking responsiveness and pulse is the most immediate and critical action because VT may be asymptomatic or cause deterioration, including cardiac arrest. Once pulse and responsiveness are determined, appropriate interventions (such as defibrillation or CPR) can be initiated quickly.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Petechiae (small, pinpoint hemorrhages) are a common manifestation of DIC due to the excessive clotting and subsequent breakdown of clotting factors, leading to bleeding into the skin.
B. Diarrhea is not typically a primary symptom of DIC, although gastrointestinal bleeding can occur in severe cases.
C. Intractable vomiting is not characteristic of DIC, although it could occur in clients with severe bleeding or complications.
D. Urinary incontinence is not a direct manifestation of DIC, although it could occur secondary to neurological or other systemic complications.
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