The physician has just informed a client with advanced heart failure that a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) will be needed. The client is crying and says to the nurse, "I just know that I am going to die. What's the point of treatment?" The priority nursing action is to:
prepare to place the client in a single room.
ask the client if they wish to speak to a spiritual advisor.
explore the possibility of suicidal thoughts with the client.
explain to the client that they will not die for a long time.
The Correct Answer is C
A. While privacy may be important for a patient who is emotionally distressed, the priority is addressing
the client’s emotional state, not the physical environment.
B. This might be helpful later, but the priority is to explore the patient's feelings and concerns regarding their condition first. Immediate emotional support is more important at this stage.
C. When a patient expresses feelings of hopelessness, as in this case, the nurse must assess for potential suicidal ideation. This is a priority to ensure patient safety and to provide necessary psychological support or intervention.
D. While reassurance is important, providing false or unrealistic expectations can lead to further disappointment. The nurse should focus on addressing emotional distress and offering realistic support rather than giving definitive assurances.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A low hemoglobin level indicates anemia, not heart failure. While anemia can exacerbate heart failure, it is not the primary indicator.
B. BNP is a biomarker that is elevated in response to heart failure. A level above 100 pg/mL is suggestive of heart failure, and 410 pg/mL indicates significant heart stress and likely acute heart failure.
C. A low sodium level (hyponatremia) can occur in heart failure, but it is not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis. BNP is a more direct indicator of heart failure.
D. This is a normal fibrinogen level and does not indicate heart failure. Fibrinogen is more associated with clotting disorders.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Cryoprecipitate is indicated for low fibrinogen or clotting factor issues, but the client’s primary issue
here is anemia and thrombocytopenia.
B. FFP is used to replace clotting factors. While it could be considered in certain situations, in this case, the primary concern is the severe anemia and thrombocytopenia.
C. This is the most appropriate choice, as the patient has low hemoglobin (anemia) and a very low platelet count, both of which require packed red blood cells and platelets.
D. This combination is typically used for clotting factor issues, not anemia and thrombocytopenia.
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