The physician has just informed a client with advanced heart failure that a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) will be needed. The client is crying and says to the nurse, "I just know that I am going to die. What's the point of treatment?" The priority nursing action is to:

prepare to place the client in a single room.

ask the client if they wish to speak to a spiritual advisor.

explore the possibility of suicidal thoughts with the client.

explain to the client that they will not die for a long time.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   While privacy may be important for a patient who is emotionally distressed, the priority is addressing
the client’s emotional state, not the physical environment.
B.   This might be helpful later, but the priority is to explore the patient's feelings and concerns regarding their condition first. Immediate emotional support is more important at this stage.
C.   When a patient expresses feelings of hopelessness, as in this case, the nurse must assess for potential suicidal ideation. This is a priority to ensure patient safety and to provide necessary psychological support or intervention.
D.   While reassurance is important, providing false or unrealistic expectations can lead to further disappointment. The nurse should focus on addressing emotional distress and offering realistic support rather than giving definitive assurances.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (normal 135-145mEq/L) - Although important, sodium levels do not directly assess the effectiveness of furosemide in relieving fluid overload.
B. Respiratory rate of 16/minute - A decrease in respiratory rate following the administration of furosemide indicates that the client is improving, as furosemide works to reduce fluid overload and ease breathing.
C. Blood pressure reading of 120/80 - While blood pressure may be influenced by fluid status, it is not the best indicator for the effectiveness of diuretics in this case.
D. Urine output 120 mL one hour following administration - While urine output is important, a single hour’s output may not show the full effectiveness of the diuretic, and output can vary depending on the client’s hydration status.

A. Second degree AV block- Mobitz II B. Sinus bradycardia with first degree AV block C. Second degree AV block- Mobitz I D. Third degree heart block

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Mobitz II is a type of second-degree AV block characterized by constant PR intervals and sudden dropped QRS complexes (i.e., the PR interval does not lengthen progressively). This is a more serious block because the dropped beats are unpredictable and could lead to complete block.
B. Sinus bradycardia is a slower-than-normal heart rate (usually less than 60 beats per minute) that originates from the sinus node. First-degree AV block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, but unlike second-degree block, there are no dropped QRS complexes.
C. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) is a second-degree AV block where the PR interval gradually lengthens with each successive beat until a QRS complex is dropped. After the dropped beat, the cycle repeats. This is a relatively benign block and often resolves without intervention, though it requires monitoring.
D. Third-degree heart block (also known as complete heart block) occurs when there is no communication between the atria and ventricles. The atria and ventricles beat independently of each other. There are no relationship between the P waves and QRS complexes, and the ventricular rate is typically slower than the atrial rate.

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LAB	Result	Normal Range
Potassium	2.8 mEq/L	3.5-5.3mEq/L
Sodium	133 mEq/L	135-145 mEqL
Chloride	90 mEq/L	97-107 mEqL
Glucose	200 mg/dL	70mg/dL to 110mg/dL
Magnesium	2.5 mg/dL	1.6-2.2 mg/dL

The physician has just informed a client with advanced heart failure that a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) will be needed. The client is crying and says to the nurse, "I just know that I am going to die. What's the point of treatment?" The priority nursing action is to:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Labs

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The physician has just informed a client with advanced heart failure that a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) will be needed. The client is crying and says to the nurse, "I just know that I am going to die. What's the point of treatment?" The priority nursing action is to:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client with heart failure exhibits bibasilar crackles, dyspnea and a respiratory rate of 26/min. The physician prescribes furosemide 40 mg IV. Which parameter would the nurse use to best evaluate if the client is responding to this medication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client in the coronary care unit and the monitor depicts the rhythm shown below. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this rhythm?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute heart failure on the telemetry unit. Which laboratory result does the nurse know is most indicative of this diagnosis?

The nurse is evaluating the outcomes for a client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which laboratory value reflects a positive outcome?

The nurse is caring for a client receiving a heparin infusion for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following lab results would indicate a sub-therapeutic level? An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of :……. (normal value: 25-35 seconds)

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for the client diagnosed with heart failure and notes the sodium level is 128 mEq/L (normal 135-145mEq/L). How should the nurse interpret this finding?

Upon assessment of the client's lungs, the nurse hears continuous, high-pitched, musical sounds. This should be documented as:

The nurse is caring for a client who is in the later stages of left-sided heart failure. Which chief complaint would the nurse expect the client to report?

Labs

The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older adult client with a history of chronic heart failure. The client exhibits +2 pitting edema of the ankles and bibasilar crackles. Based on these findings what action should the nurse take next?