The nurse is caring for a client after a coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client is exhibiting pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention with increased central venous pressure. Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing based on these findings?
Internal bleeding.
Right-sided heart failure.
Cardiac tamponade.
Left ventricular dysfunction.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Internal bleeding may present with symptoms such as hypotension, tachycardia, and signs of blood loss, but it typically does not cause pitting edema or jugular venous distention.
B. Right-sided heart failure can cause systemic venous congestion, leading to pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention due to increased central venous pressure.
C. Cardiac tamponade presents with Beck's triad (hypotension, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds) and is typically more acute in onset compared to the gradual development of symptoms seen in right-sided heart failure.
D. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily causes symptoms of pulmonary congestion, such as dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer IV fluid bolus as prescribed by the healthcare provider is not the priority unless there is evidence of hypovolemia or shock, which isn't indicated by the current vital signs alone.
B. Medicate for pain and monitor vital signs according to protocol is the most important intervention. The client's elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure are likely due to inadequate pain control following a thoracotomy, a major surgical procedure known for causing significant postoperative pain. Managing the pain is crucial because uncontrolled pain can lead to increased sympathetic nervous system activity, resulting in tachycardia, hypertension, and tachypnea. Addressing the pain effectively will help stabilize these vital signs.
C. Encourage the client to splint the incision with a pillow to cough and deep breathe is an important postoperative intervention to prevent complications such as atelectasis, but it should be done after pain is adequately controlled, as pain can inhibit the ability to deep breathe and cough effectively.
D. Apply oxygen at 10 L/minute via non-rebreather mask and monitor pulse oximeter may be necessary if there are signs of hypoxia. However, the vital sign changes here are more likely related to pain rather than respiratory distress, making pain management the immediate priority.
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
A. Serum potassium within the reference range is not typically a cause for concern in this scenario.
B. A hemoglobin A1C level of 7% indicates poor glycemic control and may suggest the need for adjustment in diabetes management, as it exceeds the recommended target range.
C. Total cholesterol within the reference range is not the most significant finding to report in this scenario.
D. Hematocrit within the reference range is not the most significant finding to report in this scenario.
E. A random plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/L) is indicative of hyperglycemia and requires attention as it suggests poor glycemic control, potentially related to diabetes.
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