The nurse initiates an infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam for a client with a urinary tract infection. Five minutes into the infusion, the client reports not feeling well. Which client manifestation should the nurse identify as a reason to stop the infusion?

Scratchy throat.

Pupillary constriction.

Hypertension.

Bradycardia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Scratchy throat: This symptom can indicate an allergic reaction, which can progress rapidly to more severe manifestations such as anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention, including stopping the infusion and administering appropriate medications.

B. Pupillary constriction: This is not typically associated with an allergic reaction to medications like piperacillin-tazobactam. It is more commonly related to neurological conditions or the effects of certain drugs, such as opioids.

C. Hypertension: While elevated blood pressure can be concerning, it is not a common immediate reaction to piperacillin-tazobactam infusion. Hypertension could be related to other underlying conditions or stress but is not a primary reason to stop the infusion in this context.

D. Bradycardia: A slow heart rate is not a typical immediate response to an allergic reaction to antibiotics. Bradycardia can be caused by various factors, including medications, heart conditions, or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not directly linked to the infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Checking the capillary glucose level is not relevant to the observation of yellow skin color. Jaundice is related to liver function, not glucose levels.

Choice B rationale: Oxygen saturation measurement is not relevant to the observation of yellow skin color. It is used to assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, not liver function.

Choice C rationale: Yellow discoloration of the skin (jaundice) can be indicative of liver dysfunction or damage. Since the client takes acetaminophen for chronic pain, which is metabolized in the liver, the nurse should be concerned about potential hepatotoxicity. Reporting the findings to the healthcare provider is essential for further evaluation and management.

Choice D rationale: Reducing the medication dose is not appropriate without further evaluation and guidance from the healthcare provider. Jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction, and altering the medication without professional assessment could be unsafe.

A. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication. B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication. C. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

choice A, Drawing the peak level two hours after the IV dose is too late to capture the drug's highest serum concentration. Similarly, drawing the trough two hours before the next dose does not reflect the lowest drug level accurately.
Choice B,Drawing the peak level one hour after completion of the IV dose ensures an accurate measurement of the highest serum concentration, as vancomycin typically peaks within this time frame. Drawing the trough one hour before the next dose ensures the lowest concentration of the drug is measured, providing precise therapeutic monitoring.

Choice C is incorrect because drawing blood 30 minutes into the IV dose would not allow the full dose to circulate and reach peak levels in the bloodstream.

Choice D.Drawing the peak level immediately after the completion of the IV dose is too early, as the drug needs time to distribute in the bloodstream and reach its highest concentration. While drawing the trough 30 minutes before the next dose is appropriate, the incorrect timing of the peak makes this option unsuitable.

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The nurse initiates an infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam for a client with a urinary tract infection. Five minutes into the infusion, the client reports not feeling well. Which client manifestation should the nurse identify as a reason to stop the infusion?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

While assessing a client who takes acetaminophen for chronic pain, the nurse observes that the client's skin looks yellow in color. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client is receiving intravenous (IV) vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the drug. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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