Find information about a client below.

Exhibits

The client is in the provider’s office for a physical. He states that he has been monitoring his blood pressure, but it is continuing to go up.

The physician has given the client a prescription for captopril.

Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement(s) by selecting from the lists of options provided.

Captopril is a
dropdown
that works by
dropdown
.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Choice A rationale: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are a different class of
medications commonly used to relieve pain, inflammation, and reduce fever. They are not used
for treating hypertension or acting as ACE inhibitors.
Choice B rationale: Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are another class of
antihypertensive medications that work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that
causes blood vessels to constrict. While ARBs are similar in function to ACE inhibitors in
managing blood pressure, captopril specifically belongs to the ACE inhibitor class.
Choice C rationale: Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE
inhibitors are a class of antihypertensive medications that work by inhibiting the enzyme ACE,
which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. By inhibiting this conversion, ACE inhibitors
help relax and dilate blood vessels, leading to decreased blood pressure. They are commonly
used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions.
Choice D rationale: Aldosterone antagonists are a different class of medications used to block the
action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and water balance in the body. They are
used to manage conditions such as heart failure and hypertension but are not synonymous with ACE inhibitors like captopril.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

choice A, Drawing the peak level two hours after the IV dose is too late to capture the drug's highest serum concentration. Similarly, drawing the trough two hours before the next dose does not reflect the lowest drug level accurately.
Choice B,Drawing the peak level one hour after completion of the IV dose ensures an accurate measurement of the highest serum concentration, as vancomycin typically peaks within this time frame. Drawing the trough one hour before the next dose ensures the lowest concentration of the drug is measured, providing precise therapeutic monitoring.

Choice C is incorrect because drawing blood 30 minutes into the IV dose would not allow the full dose to circulate and reach peak levels in the bloodstream.

Choice D.Drawing the peak level immediately after the completion of the IV dose is too early, as the drug needs time to distribute in the bloodstream and reach its highest concentration. While drawing the trough 30 minutes before the next dose is appropriate, the incorrect timing of the peak makes this option unsuitable.

A. Nausea. B. Diarrhea. C. Involuntary movements. D. Unusual irritability.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Nausea is the symptom the medication is intended to treat, and it is expected that the client may have some level of nausea while undergoing chemotherapy. It is not the most important adverse effect to report in this scenario.

Choice B rationale: Diarrhea is not a common or significant adverse effect of metoclopramide. While it is essential to monitor for any gastrointestinal side effects, it is not the most important adverse effect to report in this case.

Choice C rationale: Metoclopramide is a medication commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting, particularly related to chemotherapy. One of the significant adverse effects of metoclopramide is the potential to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, including involuntary movements such as dystonia, dyskinesia, and Parkinsonism. These extrapyramidal symptoms can be serious and may require immediate intervention or discontinuation of the medication.

Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client for any signs of involuntary movements and report them promptly to the healthcare provider for appropriate management.

Choice D rationale: Unusual irritability is not a typical adverse effect associated with metoclopramide. While mood changes can occur with any medication, involuntary movements are a more concerning side effect that requires immediate attention and reporting.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is receiving intravenous (IV) vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the drug. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with chemotherapy induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to report?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD) started a prescription for epoetin alfa two months ago. Which client finding best indicates that the medication is effective? Reference Range Hemoglobin (Hgb) [Reference Range: Male: 14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]

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