History and Physical
The client is a 26-year-old female with acute appendicitis. She has a 12-year history of type 1 diabetes and no other significant medical histor The appendectomy was completed without issue, and the client will be admitted to the surgical floor to recover.
For each nursing action below, click to specify if the action is indicated, contraindicated or non-essential.
Verify that the client can count carbohydrates
Restart the IV fluids until the tray arrives
Give insulin lispro 4 units
Give insulin glargine 12 units
Mix the insulin lispro and insulin glargine in one syringe
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"}}
Choice A rationale: Indicated. This is important for a client with type 1 diabetes, as counting carbohydrates helps in calculating the appropriate insulin dose and maintaining glycemic control.
Choice B rationale: Non-essential. The client is already admitted to the surgical floor and does not require restarting the IV fluids unless there is a specific medical indication.
Choice C rationale: Contraindicated. Insulin doses should be prescribed by a healthcare provider based on the patient's blood glucose levels and individual insulin requirements. The nurse should follow the prescribed insulin orders and not administer insulin without an order.
Choice D rationale: Indicated. Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin used to provide a steady background insulin level throughout the day. The nurse should administer the prescribed insulin glargine dose as ordered.
Choice E rationale: Contraindicated. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin, and insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin. Mixing different types of insulin in one syringe can alter their pharmacokinetics and lead to inconsistent blood glucose control. Insulin lispro and insulin glargine should be administered separately.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Administering the dose of labetalol without further assessment may not be appropriate in this situation. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, which is considered bradycardia (heart rate below the normal range of 60-100 beats/minute). Bradycardia can be a potential adverse effect of labetalol, a beta-blocker. Moreover, the client's blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, indicating that the hypertension is not well controlled. Administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia or elevated blood pressure could potentially exacerbate these issues.
Choice B rationale: Withholding the scheduled dose of labetalol is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The client's heart rate of 48 beats/minute is considered bradycardia, which may be a side effect of labetalol or indicative of an underlying issue. Additionally, the client's blood
pressure is elevated, indicating inadequate control of hypertension. Bradycardia can reduce cardiac output and may lead to further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to obtain further instructions and address the client's bradycardia and hypertension before administering the medication.
Choice C rationale: While telemetry monitoring is appropriate for clients with certain cardiac conditions or when changes in heart rate need close observation, it may not be the most urgent action in this situation. The client's bradycardia and elevated blood pressure are concerning and require immediate attention. Telemetry monitoring may be considered later, but it does not address the immediate need to withhold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale: Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, such as from lying down to standing up. While orthostatic hypotension is a valid concern for clients taking antihypertensive medications, it is not the primary issue in this scenario. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, indicating bradycardia and the blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, suggesting uncontrolled hypertension. These are the main concerns that require immediate attention and further assessment before administering the labetalol dose.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A:The primary therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa is to stimulate erythropoiesis, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. An increase to 12 g/dL demonstrates that the medication is effectively treating the anemia caused by CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is the most objective and reliable indicator of the medication’s effectiveness.
B: While these subjective improvements can indicate an overall improvement in anemia-related symptoms, they are not the best or most definitive measure of the medication's effectiveness. Objective data, such as hemoglobin levels, provide more concrete evidence.
C: Increased consumption of iron-rich foods is beneficial for clients with anemia, but it is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Dietary changes can support overall health but do not provide evidence of the medication's impact on hemoglobin levels.
D: Taking concurrent iron therapy is common for clients receiving epoetin alfa, as iron is necessary for the production of red blood cells. However, the absence of adverse effects does not directly indicate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in increasing hemoglobin levels.
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