The nurse includes which of the following as an appropriately constructed goal statement for the client with COPD?
Patient will exhibit O2 saturation > 92% by discharge.
Teach pursed-lip breathing prior to discharge.
Patient will state 2 ways to decrease chance of reinfection by the end of shift.
Patient will demonstrate pursed-lip breathing.
The Correct Answer is C
This is an appropriately constructed goal statement for the client with COPD because it is specific, measurable, attainable, realistic and time-bound (SMART). It also addresses the client’s education needs and promotes self-care.
Choice A is wrong because it is not realistic or attainable for a client with COPD to have O2 saturation > 92% by discharge.
The normal range for O2 saturation is 95-100%, but clients with COPD may have lower levels due to chronic hypoxia.
Choice B is wrong because it is not a goal statement, but an intervention.
A goal statement should describe the expected outcome of the intervention, not the intervention itself.
Choice D is wrong because it is not measurable or time-bound.
A goal statement should have a clear indicator of how and when the outcome will be achieved.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is an example of secondary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complications. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.
A client who has a family history of breast cancer and is scheduled for a mammogram is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention is early detection of a disease before it progresses. Secondary prevention can include screenings and other forms of diagnostic tests.
This is an example of tertiary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complication. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.
Choice C is wrong because it is not an example of any level of prevention.
A client who is asymptomatic is not scheduled for a series of tests because there is no indication of any disease or risk factor.
Choice D is wrong because it is an example of primary prevention, which is the action taken to prevent the development of disease.
A client who is scheduled to receive an influenza vaccination is protected from getting infected by the virus and developing flu-related complications.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This statement indicates an understanding of the ethical principle of respect for autonomy, which means that the nurse respects the client’s right to make their own decisions about their care and respects their values and beliefs.
Choice A is wrong because “A nurse’s personal values are not considered when making ethical decisions.” This statement contradicts the ethical principle of integrity, which means that the nurse acts in accordance with their personal and professional values and standards.
Choice B is wrong because “A nurse’s behaviors and actions are called values.” This statement confuses values with morals, which are the judgments about behaviors and actions based on personal or societal beliefs.
Choice D is wrong because “Value clarification involves maintaining clinical competency.” This statement confuses value clarification with professionalism, which involves maintaining clinical competency, accountability, and responsibility. Value clarification is a process of self-exploration and reflection that helps the nurse identify their own values and understand how they affect their ethical decisions.
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