The nurse in a medical unit is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles, and the nurse suspects pulmonary edema. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the healthcare provider and prepares to implement which priority interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Administering morphine sulfate intravenously
Administering oxygen
Transporting the client to the coronary care unit
Placing the client in a low Fowler's side-lying position
Inserting a Foley catheter
Administering furosemide (Lasix)
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E,F
Choice A reason : Morphine sulfate is used intravenously in acute heart failure with pulmonary edema because it can reduce preload and afterload, thereby decreasing the work of the heart and improving breathing.
Choice B reason : Administering oxygen is crucial for a client with pulmonary edema to improve oxygenation and relieve symptoms of hypoxia.
Choice C reason : Transporting the client to the coronary care unit is appropriate for continuous monitoring and management of acute heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Choice D reason : While placing the client in a high Fowler's position is recommended to ease breathing, the low Fowler's side-lying position is not typically indicated for pulmonary edema. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice E reason : Inserting a Foley catheter can help monitor urine output, especially important when administering diuretics like furosemide, and manage fluid status.
Choice F reason : Administering furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic, helps to reduce fluid overload and relieve pulmonary congestion in clients with heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason : The symptoms described for the 40-year-old woman align closely with the clinical presentation of a pulmonary embolism. Swelling and pain in the calf may indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to PE. The presence of chest pain, difficulty breathing, rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and rapid breathing (tachypnea) are hallmark signs of PE³⁴.
Choice B reason : While the 60-year-old man is experiencing fatigue, which can be a symptom of many conditions, there is no direct indication of PE. Acute kidney injury (AKI) after IV antibiotics suggests a different pathophysiology unrelated to PE.
Choice C reason : The 30-year-old man's refusal to ambulate or wear compression stockings after surgery increases his risk for DVT and subsequently PE; however, he does not currently exhibit symptoms that are as indicative of PE as the 40-year-old woman.
Choice D reason : The 55-year-old woman's symptoms could suggest a cardiac event, such as a heart attack, especially with the radiating jaw pain. While PE can present with similar symptoms, the radiating pain is more characteristic of cardiac issues³.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason : While morphine IV can be used to alleviate pain and anxiety, it is not the first-line intervention for a pulmonary embolism. The primary concern in pulmonary embolism is to address the impaired gas exchange and potential hypoxemia¹.
Choice B reason : Starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's may be part of the overall management but is not the immediate priority. The initial focus should be on stabilizing the client's respiratory status¹.
Choice C reason : Initiating cardiac monitoring is important for observing the client's heart function, as pulmonary embolism can lead to strain on the heart. However, the first intervention should be to ensure adequate oxygenation¹.
Choice D reason : Administering oxygen therapy is the most critical initial intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen therapy helps to manage hypoxemia and reduce the workload on the heart by improving oxygen saturation levels¹.
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