A nurse is preparing a client who is to receive chemotherapy for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Choice A reason : Conducting 15-minute checks can be part of the safety measures for a client at risk of self-harm, but it may not be sufficient for someone who is actively hearing voices commanding self-harm and refusing to engage in safety planning. These checks are less intensive and may not provide the immediate intervention needed to ensure the client's safety¹.

Choice B reason : Encouraging the client to express feelings related to suicide is an important therapeutic intervention that can provide insight into the client's emotional state and risk factors. However, if the client is actively psychotic and not engaging in safety planning, this approach alone may not be enough to ensure immediate safety¹.

Choice C reason : Placing the client on one-to-one observation is the most direct and immediate intervention to ensure safety when a client is experiencing psychotic features and is at risk of self-harm. This level of observation means that the client is never alone, and a staff member is always present to intervene if the client attempts self-harm¹.

Choice D reason : Obtaining an order for locked seclusion can be considered if other less restrictive measures are not sufficient to ensure the client's safety. However, it is generally a last resort due to the potential for negative psychological effects and should only be used when absolutely necessary and when other interventions have failed¹.

Choice A reason : This statement is misleading. While heparin does need to reach a therapeutic level to be effective, it does not directly dissolve existing clots. Heparin's primary action is to prevent the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots by inhibiting certain factors in the coagulation cascade.

Choice B reason : While a pharmacist can provide detailed information about medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to educate and inform the client about the effects of their treatment. Therefore, this response would not be appropriate.

Choice C reason : This is the most accurate response. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, which is essential for clot formation. It does not have the ability to dissolve existing clots but can prevent new ones from forming and existing ones from getting larger.

Choice D reason : Oral medications such as warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) may be used after heparin to maintain anticoagulation; however, they also do not dissolve clots. The body's natural fibrinolytic system is responsible for breaking down clots over time.