A nurse is caring for a client who has reported experiencing abuse at home. Which of the following actions should be a priority for the nurse?
Assess risk for immediate harm.
Refer the client to a community support group.
Implement a safety plan.
Instruct the client on how to leave the relationship.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason : The immediate safety of the client is the nurse's primary concern. Assessing the risk for immediate harm is crucial to prevent further abuse and to ensure the client's well-being. This involves evaluating the severity of the situation and the potential for future harm¹.
Choice B reason : While referring the client to a community support group is important for long-term support, it is not the immediate priority when a client reports abuse.
Choice C reason : Implementing a safety plan is a critical step, but it follows the initial assessment of immediate risk. The safety plan will be part of the ongoing support and intervention for the client.
Choice D reason : Instructing the client on how to leave the relationship is an important aspect of empowering the client; however, it is not the first action to take before assessing immediate risk and ensuring the client's safety.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason : The symptoms described for the 40-year-old woman align closely with the clinical presentation of a pulmonary embolism. Swelling and pain in the calf may indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to PE. The presence of chest pain, difficulty breathing, rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and rapid breathing (tachypnea) are hallmark signs of PE³⁴.
Choice B reason : While the 60-year-old man is experiencing fatigue, which can be a symptom of many conditions, there is no direct indication of PE. Acute kidney injury (AKI) after IV antibiotics suggests a different pathophysiology unrelated to PE.
Choice C reason : The 30-year-old man's refusal to ambulate or wear compression stockings after surgery increases his risk for DVT and subsequently PE; however, he does not currently exhibit symptoms that are as indicative of PE as the 40-year-old woman.
Choice D reason : The 55-year-old woman's symptoms could suggest a cardiac event, such as a heart attack, especially with the radiating jaw pain. While PE can present with similar symptoms, the radiating pain is more characteristic of cardiac issues³.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason : This statement is misleading. While heparin does need to reach a therapeutic level to be effective, it does not directly dissolve existing clots. Heparin's primary action is to prevent the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots by inhibiting certain factors in the coagulation cascade.
Choice B reason : While a pharmacist can provide detailed information about medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to educate and inform the client about the effects of their treatment. Therefore, this response would not be appropriate.
Choice C reason : This is the most accurate response. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of fibrin, which is essential for clot formation. It does not have the ability to dissolve existing clots but can prevent new ones from forming and existing ones from getting larger.
Choice D reason : Oral medications such as warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) may be used after heparin to maintain anticoagulation; however, they also do not dissolve clots. The body's natural fibrinolytic system is responsible for breaking down clots over time.
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