A nurse is caring for a client who has reported experiencing abuse at home. Which of the following actions should be a priority for the nurse?
Assess risk for immediate harm.
Refer the client to a community support group.
Implement a safety plan.
Instruct the client on how to leave the relationship.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason : The immediate safety of the client is the nurse's primary concern. Assessing the risk for immediate harm is crucial to prevent further abuse and to ensure the client's well-being. This involves evaluating the severity of the situation and the potential for future harm¹.
Choice B reason : While referring the client to a community support group is important for long-term support, it is not the immediate priority when a client reports abuse.
Choice C reason : Implementing a safety plan is a critical step, but it follows the initial assessment of immediate risk. The safety plan will be part of the ongoing support and intervention for the client.
Choice D reason : Instructing the client on how to leave the relationship is an important aspect of empowering the client; however, it is not the first action to take before assessing immediate risk and ensuring the client's safety.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason : The symptoms described for the 40-year-old woman align closely with the clinical presentation of a pulmonary embolism. Swelling and pain in the calf may indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to PE. The presence of chest pain, difficulty breathing, rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and rapid breathing (tachypnea) are hallmark signs of PE³⁴.
Choice B reason : While the 60-year-old man is experiencing fatigue, which can be a symptom of many conditions, there is no direct indication of PE. Acute kidney injury (AKI) after IV antibiotics suggests a different pathophysiology unrelated to PE.
Choice C reason : The 30-year-old man's refusal to ambulate or wear compression stockings after surgery increases his risk for DVT and subsequently PE; however, he does not currently exhibit symptoms that are as indicative of PE as the 40-year-old woman.
Choice D reason : The 55-year-old woman's symptoms could suggest a cardiac event, such as a heart attack, especially with the radiating jaw pain. While PE can present with similar symptoms, the radiating pain is more characteristic of cardiac issues³.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason : Having the client floss 4 times daily is not typically recommended during chemotherapy because their gums may be more prone to bleeding due to a decrease in platelets, which is a common side effect of chemotherapy¹. Instead, gentle oral care is advised to prevent damage to the oral mucosa.
Choice B reason : Having the client swish with commercial mouthwash before therapy is not generally recommended because many commercial mouthwashes contain alcohol, which can be irritating to the mucous membranes and may exacerbate chemotherapy-induced mucositis¹. Instead, a saline rinse or a prescribed mouthwash without alcohol may be used to help manage oral hygiene during chemotherapy.
Choice C reason : Telling the client to expect dark stools following chemotherapy could be misleading. While some chemotherapy drugs can cause changes in stool color, dark stools can also indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention¹. Therefore, patients should be instructed to report any significant changes in stool color to their healthcare provider.
Choice D reason : Administering an antiemetic prior to the procedure is a standard practice to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy¹. Antiemetics are medications that can help control these common side effects, improving the patient's comfort and ability to tolerate the treatment.
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