The nurse has reviewed the Graphic Record and Diagnostic Results at 1030.>
Select 1 condition and 1 client finding to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
After collecting data from the client, the nurse should identify that the client is experiencing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
- Placenta previa: Placenta previa occurs later in pregnancy and is characterized by painless bright red vaginal bleeding without abdominal tenderness. The client is only 6 weeks pregnant, and placenta previa is not a concern this early in gestation.
- abruptio placentae: Abruptio placentae involves painful bleeding and a rigid uterus, usually occurring after 20 weeks' gestation. The client’s gestational age and presenting symptoms are more consistent with an early pregnancy complication rather than abruptio placentae.
- ectopic pregnancy: This occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. The client’s missed period, positive pregnancy test, right lower quadrant tenderness, and dark red vaginal spotting are classic signs of ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy is a life-threatening emergency if rupture occurs, requiring prompt identification and management.
- acute asthma attack: While the client has a history of asthma and slight inspiratory wheezing, her respiratory status is stable with normal oxygen saturation and no signs of acute respiratory distress. Therefore, an asthma attack is not the primary concern.
- pyelonephritis: Pyelonephritis typically presents with fever, chills, flank pain, and urinary symptoms. The client’s presentation of right lower quadrant tenderness and vaginal spotting does not align with the typical findings of pyelonephritis.
- respiratory rate: The client’s respiratory rate is normal at 16/min, indicating stable respiratory function. Respiratory rate does not explain the primary concern related to abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
- history of regular menstrual period: While this supports that the client is late in her cycle, it is not the most direct or critical finding pointing toward the diagnosis. The focus should be on current clinical signs like abdominal tenderness.
- temperature: The client’s temperature is within normal range at 37.3°C (99.1°F), making infection less likely and not the primary concern related to her current symptoms.
- right lower quadrant abdominal tenderness: Localized tenderness in the right lower quadrant combined with vaginal spotting strongly suggests an ectopic pregnancy. This is a hallmark finding that supports the diagnosis as the growing embryo can cause irritation, stretching, or rupture of the fallopian tube.
- hyperactive bowel sounds: Hyperactive bowel sounds are nonspecific and can occur due to anxiety, mild gastrointestinal upset, or pain, but they are not diagnostic for ectopic pregnancy. The abdominal tenderness is the more significant finding.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
- Seizures: The client’s symptoms of severe hypertension, persistent headache, hyperreflexia, proteinuria, and low platelet count strongly indicate severe preeclampsia, a condition that can rapidly progress to eclampsia, where seizures occur. This is a critical obstetric emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity.
- Hypoglycemia: The client’s blood glucose level is 85 mg/dL, which is within the normal range. There are no signs such as diaphoresis, confusion, or weakness that would suggest hypoglycemia, and this condition is unrelated to the client's primary diagnosis of severe preeclampsia.
- Cervical insufficiency: Cervical insufficiency typically causes painless cervical dilation and is associated with second-trimester pregnancy losses. The client is at 31 weeks with no reported cervical changes, contractions, or painless dilation, making this complication unlikely in the current clinical scenario.
- Placental abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to damage to the placental blood vessels. Signs of decreased fetal movement and the high-risk profile of preeclampsia support the concern that abruption could occur, leading to serious maternal and fetal compromise.
- Heart failure: Although the client has some edema, there are no other clinical signs such as dyspnea, crackles, or orthopnea that would suggest heart failure. The edema seen here is consistent with preeclampsia rather than decompensated cardiac function.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Pain radiating down the left arm: Pain radiating to the left arm is more commonly associated with myocardial infarction (heart attack), not a transient ischemic attack (TIA). It indicates cardiac ischemia rather than a temporary disruption in cerebral blood flow.
B. Seizure activity: Seizures are not characteristic of transient ischemic attacks. While seizures can occur after significant brain injury such as a stroke, TIAs typically present with focal neurological deficits that resolve quickly without leading to seizure activity.
C. Sudden loss of vision in one eye: A sudden, temporary loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax) is a classic sign of a TIA. It reflects temporary ischemia in the retinal or cerebral blood vessels and warrants immediate medical evaluation to prevent a full-blown stroke.
D. Epigastric pain: Epigastric pain is usually related to gastrointestinal issues such as gastritis, ulcers, or gallbladder disease. It is not indicative of a transient ischemic attack and would not typically be prioritized in assessing for neurological compromise.
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