The key characteristics of metabolic syndrome include the following except?
Low HDLs.
Type II diabetes mellitus.
Hypertension.
High HDLs.
Abdominal obesity.
The Correct Answer is D
HDL stands for high-density lipoprotein, which is a type of cholesterol that carries excess cholesterol from other parts of the body to the liver, where it can be removed.
HDL is sometimes called “good” cholesterol because it helps protect against heart disease. Having high HDL levels is not a characteristic of metabolic syndrome, but rather a protective factor.
Metabolic syndrome is a group of conditions that increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes. These conditions include:
• Low HDLs (choice A): Having low levels of HDL cholesterol is a risk factor for metabolic syndrome, as it means there is less “good” cholesterol to remove excess cholesterol from the blood vessels.
• Type II diabetes mellitus (choice B): This is a condition where the body does not use insulin properly, leading to high blood sugar levels.
Insulin is a hormone that helps the cells take up glucose from the blood.
Insulin resistance is a key feature of metabolic syndrome.
• Hypertension (choice C): This means having high blood pressure, which can damage the heart and blood vessels over time.
High blood pressure is often associated with obesity and insulin resistance, which are common in metabolic syndrome.
• Abdominal obesity (choice E): This means having excess fat around the waist and trunk, also known as central or visceral obesity.
This type of fat is more harmful than fat in other parts of the body, as it can release inflammatory substances that affect the metabolism and increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
• Hyperglycemia (choice F): This means having high blood sugar levels, which can damage the blood vessels and organs over time.
Hyperglycemia can result from insulin resistance or type 2 diabetes, which are both components of metabolic syndrome.
The normal ranges for some of these conditions are:
• HDL cholesterol: more than 40 mg/dL for men and more than 50 mg/dL for women
• Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mmHg
• Blood sugar: less than 100 mg/dL after fasting or less than 140 mg/dL two hours after eating
• Waist circumference: less than 40 inches for men and less than 35 inches for women
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Nitroglycerin is a medication that dilates the blood vessels and improves blood flow to the heart. It is used to treat angina, a condition that causes chest pain due to reduced oxygen supply to the heart. However, nitroglycerin can lose its effectiveness over time if it is used continuously. This is called tolerance, and it means that the patient will need higher doses of the medication to achieve the same relief. To avoid tolerance, patients who use transdermal nitroglycerin patches are instructed to remove the patch at bedtime and apply a new one in the morning. This creates a nitrate-free interval of about 8 to 12 hours, which allows the body to restore its sensitivity to nitroglycerin.
Choice A is wrong because an allergic response is not a common side effect of nitroglycerin. Some patients may experience skin irritation or rash at the site of application, but this is usually mild and does not require discontinuation of the medication.
Choice C is wrong because overdosage is unlikely with transdermal nitroglycerin patches. The patches deliver a controlled amount of nitroglycerin through the skin over a period of time. The risk of overdosage is higher with other forms of nitroglycerin, such as tablets or sprays, which are taken as needed for acute angina attacks.
Choice D is wrong because forgetting to remove the patch in the morning is not a serious problem. The patch will continue to deliver nitroglycerin until it is removed, but it will not cause harm to the patient. However, it may reduce the effectiveness of the next patch if there is no nitrate-free interval between them.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
PT stands for prothrombin time, which is a measure of how long it takes the blood to clot. INR stands for international normalized ratio, which is a standardized way of reporting the PT result. Warfarin is a blood thinner that works by slowing down the clotting process.Therefore, people who take warfarin need to have their PT/INR monitored regularly to make sure they are getting the right dose and not bleeding too much or too little.
Choice A is wrong because PTT stands for partial thromboplastin time, which is another measure of blood clotting that is not affected by warfarin.PTT is used to monitor heparin, another type of blood thinner.
Choice C is wrong because CBC stands for complete blood count, which is a test that measures the number and types of cells in the blood, such as red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.CBC can show if there is anemia, infection or bleeding, but it does not measure the effect of warfarin on clotting.
Choice D is wrong because LFTs stand for liver function tests, which are a group of tests that check how well the liver is working.
LFTs can show if there is liver damage or disease, which can affect how warfarin is metabolized and cleared from the body.However, LFTs do not directly measure the effect of warfarin on clotting.
The normal range for PT/INR varies depending on the laboratory and the reason for taking warfarin.
Generally, the normal range for PT is 10 to 13 seconds, and the normal range for INR is 1.1 or below for healthy people.For people taking warfarin, the target INR range depends on their condition and risk factors, but it is usually between 2.0 and 3.0.
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