The home health nurse is assessing a 17-year-old pregnant client at 34 weeks of gestation who has been diagnosed with preeclampsia. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the client has gained 2 pounds in the past week and her blood pressure is 144/92 mmHg. Which assessment finding would require further action by the nurse?

Visual disturbances

Frequent voiding in large amounts

1+ pedal edema

One headache in the past week

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Visual disturbances would require further action by the nurse as they can be a sign of worsening preeclampsia and a potential indication for immediate medical attention. The client's recent weight gain and elevated blood pressure are also concerning findings, but visual disturbances are a more urgent symptom. Frequent voiding in large amounts and 1+ pedal edema are common in pregnancy, while one headache in the past week may or may not be significant depending on the context.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Smoking has been linked to a variety of health issues, including decreased fertility in both men and women. It can cause damage to sperm DNA and reduce sperm motility, which can make it more difficult for sperm to reach and fertilize an egg. Therefore, smoking can contribute to infertility issues. It's important for the man to quit smoking or at least reduce his cigarette consumption to increase his chances of conception with his wife.

A. History of cesarean section for fetal distress. B. Fear of natural childbirth. C. Current pregnancy is complicated by gestational diabetes. D. History of cephalopelvic disproportion with first pregnancy.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A history of cesarean section for fetal distress is an indication for a repeat cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies, as the risk of recurrence of fetal distress is higher. A trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) may be attempted in some cases, but a planned cesarean section is often recommended.
Option B is incorrect because fear of natural childbirth is not a medical indication for a cesarean section.
Option C is incorrect because gestational diabetes does not typically require a cesarean section unless other complications arise, such as fetal macrosomia or failed induction of labor.
Option D is incorrect because a history of cephalopelvic disproportion with the first pregnancy may not necessarily require a cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies. A trial of labor may be attempted, depending on the circumstances.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. The nurse's most appropriate response is:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A cesarean section would be most appropriate for which of the following clients?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a term gestation pregnant patient who came into the office for an external cephalic version. Which of the following interventions would not be appropriate for this patient?

The postpartum nurse identifies a newborn born to a mother positive for hepatitis B. The nurse reports the birth to the department of health for data collection. This is an example of:

What is the highest priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant woman who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy?

A pregnant woman's amniotic membranes rupture and a prolapsed umbilical cord is found. What intervention would be the first priority?

Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by:

A public health nurse in a large city is planning and developing strategies to disseminate information to residents about infant safe sleep practices. Which of the following best exhibits the nurse's understanding of effective health communication in the community?

The nurse is providing education for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with a placenta previa at 37 weeks' gestation. The nurse understands that teaching has not been effective when the patient states: