A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus?
Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PLBS)
Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
Biophysical profile (BPP)
The Correct Answer is D
The biophysical profile (BPP) would yield more detailed information about the fetus in this scenario. The BPP is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation that assesses fetal well-being by evaluating five biophysical variables: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate. The BPP is a more detailed assessment of fetal well-being compared to a nonstress test and can provide valuable information about the fetus's overall health and well-being, including any potential issues or difficulties.
MSAFP screening is a blood test that can detect certain fetal abnormalities, but it does not provide detailed information about fetal well-being.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PLBS) is an invasive test that is used to obtain a sample of fetal blood for testing in cases of suspected fetal anemia or other blood disorders. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies is a diagnostic tool used to detect structural abnormalities or defects in the fetus. While it can provide some information about fetal well-being, it is not as comprehensive as the BPP in evaluating fetal health and wellness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A history of cesarean section for fetal distress is an indication for a repeat cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies, as the risk of recurrence of fetal distress is higher. A trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) may be attempted in some cases, but a planned cesarean section is often recommended.
Option B is incorrect because fear of natural childbirth is not a medical indication for a cesarean section.
Option C is incorrect because gestational diabetes does not typically require a cesarean section unless other complications arise, such as fetal macrosomia or failed induction of labor.
Option D is incorrect because a history of cephalopelvic disproportion with the first pregnancy may not necessarily require a cesarean section in subsequent pregnancies. A trial of labor may be attempted, depending on the circumstances.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Infants of diabetic mothers (IDM) are at risk of hypoglycemia because they have been exposed to high levels of glucose in utero. The fetus responds to this high glucose level by producing high levels of insulin to regulate the glucose level. After delivery, the glucose supply from the mother is cut off and the infant's insulin levels remain high, leading to hypoglycemia.
Additionally, the infant's ability to produce glucose is immature and may not be sufficient to maintain normal blood glucose levels, especially if the infant is premature or small for gestational age. Therefore, IDM requires close monitoring of their blood glucose levels to prevent and treat hypoglycemia.
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