The drug nalbuphine is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?

They have a lower dependency potential than agonists.

They have a higher potency than agonists

They have anti-inflammatory effects.

They are given to reverse the effects of opiates

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Partial agonists like nalbuphine have a lower dependency potential than full agonists. This means they are less likely to lead to physical dependence or tolerance when used for pain
management.

B. Partial agonists do not necessarily have a higher potency than agonists. Potency refers to the dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect, which can vary among different drugs regardless of their classification as agonists or partial agonists.
C. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used for their anti-inflammatory effects.

They are primarily used for pain management.

D. Partial agonists like nalbuphine are not typically used to reverse the effects of opiates. They may be used in certain situations to manage opioid-induced side effects or in cases of opioid overdose, but their primary indication is for pain management.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Acetaminophen is generally considered safe for patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease.

It does not irritate the gastrointestinal mucosa like nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
B. Patients with a history of liver disease should not receive acetaminophen or should use it with caution and under close supervision, as acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver. Liver
impairment can lead to decreased metabolism of acetaminophen, potentially resulting in drug accumulation and hepatotoxicity.
C. Acetaminophen is commonly used to relieve mild to moderate headaches. However, the appropriateness of acetaminophen use in this scenario depends on the patient's overall health status and any contraindications specific to the individual.
D. Acetaminophen is often used to reduce fever. A fever of 101°F (38.3°C) alone does not necessarily contraindicate acetaminophen use, but caution should be exercised in patients with liver disease.

A. Decreased urine output B. Increased cardiac output C. Volume restoration D. Reduced anxiety

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Decreased urine output is not the primary intended effect of an adrenergic agonist in the

treatment of shock. While adrenergic agonists may increase blood pressure, leading to a decrease in urine output due to vasoconstriction, the primary goal of administering these drugs in shock is to improve tissue perfusion and cardiac output.
B. Increased cardiac output is the primary intended effect of adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. These medications stimulate adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, contractility, and stroke volume, ultimately improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
C. Volume restoration may be a secondary effect of administering fluids along with adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock, but it is not the primary intended effect of the medication
itself.

D. Reduced anxiety is not a primary goal of administering adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. While these medications may have anxiolytic effects in certain situations, the primary goal is to improve cardiovascular function and tissue perfusion.

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The drug nalbuphine is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assessing a patient for contraindications to drug therapy with acetaminophen. Which patient should not receive acetaminophen?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa for a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. The patient asks the nurse, "Why are there two drugs in this pill?" The nurse's best response reflects which fact?

A nurse is preparing to administer amantadine 150 mg PO every 12 hr. Available is amantadine 50 mg/5 mL syrup. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

The teaching for a patient who is taking tamsulosin to reduce urinary obstruction due to benign prostatic hyperplasia will include which of these?

Before administering a client's prescribed nonselective adrenergic blocker, what should the nurse assess?

A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms. The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?

The nurse is caring for a 64-year-old male client with diabetes who is being treated with a nonselective beta-blocker. What health education should the nurse prioritize with this client?

The opioid acetaminophen/hydrocodone is prescribed for a patient who has had surgery. The nurse informs the patient that which common adverse effects can occur with this medication? (Select all that apply.)

The barbiturate phenobarbital is prescribed for a patient with epilepsy. While assessing the patient's current medications, the nurse recognizes that interactions may occur with which drugs? (Select all that apply.)