A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa for a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. The patient asks the nurse, "Why are there two drugs in this pill?" The nurse's best response reflects which fact?
Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery.
Carbidopa is the biologic precursor of dopamine and can penetrate into the central nervous system.
Carbidopa allows for larger doses of levodopa to be given.
There are concerns about drug-food interactions with levodopa therapy that do not exist with the combination therapy.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery, specifically in the gastrointestinal tract and peripheral tissues, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain and be converted to dopamine. This enhances the effectiveness of levodopa therapy in managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
B. Carbidopa is not the biologic precursor of dopamine. It is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor that does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
C. Carbidopa does not directly allow for larger doses of levodopa to be given. However, by
inhibiting the peripheral breakdown of levodopa, it enhances the availability of levodopa to the central nervous system, potentially improving therapeutic efficacy.
D. While levodopa-carbidopa combination therapy may have fewer drug-food interactions compared to levodopa alone, the primary reason for combining these medications is to enhance the effectiveness of levodopa by preventing its peripheral breakdown.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Decreased weight: Orlistat is a medication used for weight management by inhibiting the absorption of dietary fats. Its intended therapeutic effect is to promote weight loss by reducing the amount of fat absorbed from the diet.
B. Increased appetite: Orlistat does not increase appetite; rather, it may help control appetite by promoting satiety through its mechanism of action.
C. Decreased hyperactivity: Orlistat is not indicated for the treatment of hyperactivity.
D. Increased wakefulness: Orlistat does not affect wakefulness; it primarily acts in the gastrointestinal tract to inhibit fat absorption.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking
methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.
D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.
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