Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with early-stage Alzheimer’s disease. The client’s daughter tells the nurse that she plans to start administering the drug when her mothers’ symptoms are no longer manageable, in hopes that her mother will not have to go to a nursing home. How should the nurse respond?
Explain that the drug should be used early in the course of the disease process.
Affirm the decision to use the drug when the symptoms start to worsen.
Assess the client’s current mental health status before deciding to support the decision.
Confirm that the daughter is aware of the progressive nature of the disease.
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should explain to the client's daughter that Rivastigmine is most effective when used early during Alzheimer's disease. Delaying the use of the medication until the symptoms are no longer manageable may result in the drug being less effective.
The nurse should emphasize the importance of following the healthcare provider's instructions for administering the medication to maximize its therapeutic effect. It is important to educate the client's daughter about the progressive nature of Alzheimer's disease and the need for ongoing monitoring and care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client is experiencing syncope (fainting) due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, which is too low. This suggests that the client's blood pressure medications are reducing their blood pressure too much, resulting in hypotension. The rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medications is to prevent further hypotension and allow the client's blood pressure to stabilize at a safer level.
Option a is incorrect because diuresis (increased urine output) is not a likely cause of the client's hypotension.
Option b is incorrect because the client's symptoms suggest hypotension due to reduced blood pressure, rather than drug toxicity.
Option c is incorrect because the antagonistic interaction among blood pressure medications would result in reduced effectiveness but would not necessarily cause hypotension.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Diclofenac, like other NSAIDs, can cause gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. The client’s symptoms of pallor and fatigue may indicate anemia due to blood loss. Reviewing the client’s hemoglobin level would help the nurse determine if the client is experiencing anemia and if further evaluation and intervention are needed.
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