Question 26.
A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old toddler.
Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend to promote independence in eating?
Popcorn
Grapes
C. Banana slices
D. Hot dog
The Correct Answer is C

Banana slices are soft, easy to chew, and can be picked up by the toddler’s fingers, which promotes independence in eating. According to the CDC, foods that toddlers should avoid include:
- Added sugars and no-calorie sweeteners, such as sugar-sweetened and diet drinks
- High-salt foods, such as canned foods, processed meats, frozen dinners, fast food, and junk food
- Unpasteurized juice, milk, yogurt, or cheese
- Foods that may cause choking, such as hard or crunchy foods, sticky foods, stringy cheese, and foods that are not cut up into small pieces
Choice A is wrong because popcorn is a choking hazard for toddlers.
It is hard, crunchy, and can get stuck in the airway. The NHS advises not to give whole nuts and peanuts to children under 5 years old.
Choice B is wrong because grapes are also a choking hazard for toddlers.
They are round, slippery, and can block the airway. The NHS recommends cutting grapes into quarters before giving them to young children.
Choice D is wrong because hot dogs are high in salt and can cause choking if not cut up into small pieces. The Extension warns against giving hot dogs to young toddlers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Apply direct pressure to the puncture site.
Choice A rationale:
Applying intermittent pressure 2.5 cm (1 inch) below the percutaneous skin site is not the best approach. This method may not effectively control the bleeding and could potentially dislodge the introducer sheath.
Choice B rationale:
Applying direct pressure to the puncture site is the most effective way to control bleeding. Direct pressure helps to promote clot formation and reduce blood flow to the area, which is crucial in managing postoperative bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Elevating the affected extremity above the level of the heart is not appropriate in this situation. While elevation can reduce swelling, it does not address the immediate need to control active bleeding.
Choice D rationale:
Leaving the dressing undisturbed and notifying the physician immediately is not advisable. Immediate action to control the bleeding is necessary before notifying the physician. Delaying intervention could lead to significant blood loss.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
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