Patients taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of seizures must be aware of which adverse effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
Blood dyscrasias
Hyperglycemia
Urinary retention
Gingival hyperplasia
Sedation
Correct Answer : A,D
A. Blood dyscrasias: This is a correct choice. Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, including conditions like leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia.
B. Hyperglycemia: This is not typically associated with phenytoin. The primary adverse effects related to blood sugar are usually changes in glucose metabolism or hypoglycemia.
C. Urinary retention: This is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin. It is more associated with other medications or medical conditions.
D. Gingival hyperplasia: This is a correct choice. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of the gum tissue.
E. Sedation: This is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin. Phenytoin is more known for causing CNS-related side effects like nystagmus, ataxia, and dizziness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ephedra:
Ephedra is an herb that contains ephedrine, a stimulant known to cause symptoms such as severe headache, diaphoresis, and restlessness. Ephedrine has been associated with cardiovascular side effects, leading to its restriction or banning in many countries.
B. Feverfew:
Feverfew is an herb commonly used for migraine prevention. It is not typically associated with severe headache, diaphoresis, or restlessness. Instead, it is known for its potential benefits in reducing the frequency and severity of migraines.
C. Garlic:
Garlic is an herb often used for various health purposes, including cardiovascular health. It is not known to cause severe headache, diaphoresis, or restlessness.
D. St. John's Wort:
St. John's Wort is an herb commonly used for mood-related conditions, such as mild to moderate depression. It is not associated with the symptoms described, and its primary effects are related to mood regulation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "You will need to take an anticonvulsant of some type for your lifetime."
This statement may be accurate for some individuals with chronic or recurrent seizure disorders, but it is a generalization. The duration of anticonvulsant therapy varies from person to person, and some individuals may eventually be able to discontinue medication under the guidance of their healthcare provider.
B. "This medication should be taken until you haven't had a seizure for a month."
While seizure control is a factor in determining the duration of treatment, setting a specific timeframe (e.g., one month) may not be applicable to everyone. The decision to continue or discontinue anticonvulsant therapy is usually individualized and based on various factors, including the type of seizure disorder and the individual's response to treatment.
C. "Seizures are unpredictable and so is the duration of the treatment."
This is the best response. It acknowledges the variability in seizure disorders and the individualized nature of treatment duration. Seizure management is often an ongoing process that requires monitoring and adjustments based on the person's specific circumstances.
D. "You will only need to take it for a short period of time because anticonvulsants will cure the seizure disorder."
Anticonvulsants are typically used to manage and control seizures rather than cure the underlying seizure disorder. While some individuals may experience a period of seizure freedom and be able to discontinue medication, this is not true for everyone. The duration of treatment varies, and some individuals may require long-term or even lifelong therapy.
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