A 25 year-old female patient will begin taking phenytoin for epilepsy. The patient tells the nurse she is taking oral contraceptives (OCPs). Which response will the nurse give?
"Continue taking OCPS because phenytoin is not safe during pregnancy."
"You should use a backup method of contraception along with OCPs."
"You should stop taking OCPs because of drug-drug interactions with phenytoin."
"You should take low-dose aspirin while taking these medications to reduce your risk of stroke."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "Continue taking OCPS because phenytoin is not safe during pregnancy."
This statement is not accurate. While it's essential to address pregnancy risk, phenytoin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Women on phenytoin are often advised to use additional contraceptive measures.
B. "You should use a backup method of contraception along with OCPs."
This is the correct response. Phenytoin can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Using a backup method, such as condoms, is recommended to ensure adequate contraception.
C. "You should stop taking OCPs because of drug-drug interactions with phenytoin."
This advice is generally not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Abruptly stopping OCPs without an alternative form of contraception can increase the risk of unintended pregnancy.
D. "You should take low-dose aspirin while taking these medications to reduce your risk of stroke."
This statement is not relevant to the situation described. Low-dose aspirin is not typically recommended for contraception, and its use in this context does not address the potential interaction between phenytoin and oral contraceptives.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["75"]
Explanation
To calculate the rate of IV infusion, the nurse should divide the volume of fluid by the time in hours.
In this case, 750 mL divided by 10 hours equals 75 mL per hour.
Therefore, the nurse should program the IV infusion pump for 75 mL per hour.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Administer morphine 1-2 mg IV
Administering morphine is not a preventive measure for spinal headaches. It may be considered for pain relief if the patient experiences discomfort after the effects of spinal anesthesia wear off.
B. Ambulate the client as soon as she gets feelings back
Ambulating the patient too soon after spinal anesthesia is generally not recommended. Staying in bed initially helps prevent complications like spinal headaches.
C. Increase fluid intake
Adequate hydration is important after spinal anesthesia to help maintain cerebrospinal fluid volume. Increasing fluid intake can reduce the risk of developing a spinal headache.
D. Encourage the patient to stay flat in bed
Remaining in a flat or slightly elevated position helps minimize cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the puncture site, reducing the likelihood of developing a spinal headache. This position is typically recommended for a specific duration after spinal anesthesia.
E. Position the client in high Fowler's position
Placing the patient in high Fowler's position (sitting upright) may increase the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage, potentially leading to a spinal headache. This position is not recommended for preventing spinal headaches after spinal anesthesia.
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