A 25 year-old female patient will begin taking phenytoin for epilepsy. The patient tells the nurse she is taking oral contraceptives (OCPs). Which response will the nurse give?
"Continue taking OCPS because phenytoin is not safe during pregnancy."
"You should use a backup method of contraception along with OCPs."
"You should stop taking OCPs because of drug-drug interactions with phenytoin."
"You should take low-dose aspirin while taking these medications to reduce your risk of stroke."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "Continue taking OCPS because phenytoin is not safe during pregnancy."
This statement is not accurate. While it's essential to address pregnancy risk, phenytoin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Women on phenytoin are often advised to use additional contraceptive measures.
B. "You should use a backup method of contraception along with OCPs."
This is the correct response. Phenytoin can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Using a backup method, such as condoms, is recommended to ensure adequate contraception.
C. "You should stop taking OCPs because of drug-drug interactions with phenytoin."
This advice is generally not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Abruptly stopping OCPs without an alternative form of contraception can increase the risk of unintended pregnancy.
D. "You should take low-dose aspirin while taking these medications to reduce your risk of stroke."
This statement is not relevant to the situation described. Low-dose aspirin is not typically recommended for contraception, and its use in this context does not address the potential interaction between phenytoin and oral contraceptives.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "I need to increase my fluid intake." - This is a correct statement. Sucralfate should be taken with plenty of water to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness.
B. "I need to report pain or vomiting of blood." - This is also a correct statement. Severe abdominal pain or vomiting of blood may indicate a serious issue and should be reported to the healthcare provider.
C. "I need to take Carafate 30 minutes after meals." - This is an incorrect statement. Sucralfate is typically taken on an empty stomach, about 1 hour before meals and at bedtime.
D. "I need to take Maalox 30 minutes before or after Carafate." - This statement is correct. Antacids like Maalox can interfere with the absorption of sucralfate. It's generally recommended to space them apart, taking sucralfate at least 30 minutes before or after antacids.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Decreased ascites
Ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity) is more directly related to portal hypertension and liver cirrhosis. While lactulose may contribute to fluid balance, its primary therapeutic effect in hepatic encephalopathy is the reduction of ammonia levels.
B. Decreased ammonia level
Lactulose is a medication commonly used in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition associated with liver disease. The therapeutic effect of lactulose in this context is to reduce blood ammonia levels. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the form of ammonium ions in the colon, thereby lowering ammonia concentrations in the blood.
C. Decreased jaundice
Jaundice is often associated with liver dysfunction, but lactulose is not primarily used to address jaundice. Its primary role in liver disease is in the management of hepatic encephalopathy.
D. Decreased blood pressure
Blood pressure is not a direct therapeutic target of lactulose in the context of liver disease. Lactulose's primary therapeutic effect is related to reducing ammonia levels and managing hepatic encephalopathy.
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