The client has fallen off his mountain bike and sustained multiple abrasions to both of his knees. Which would be appropriate medication(s) for pain management for this client? (Select All That Apply)
Acetaminophen
Aspirin
Hydrocodone
Ibuprofen
Morphine
Correct Answer : A,D
A. Acetaminophen
Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic that can be used for mild to moderate pain relief. It is suitable for managing pain associated with abrasions.
B. Aspirin
Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with analgesic and anti-inflammatory properties. While it can be used for pain relief, it may increase the risk of bleeding, and its use is generally avoided in acute injuries with bleeding.
C. Hydrocodone
Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic and is typically reserved for moderate to severe pain. It may not be the first choice for managing pain associated with abrasions unless the pain is more intense.
D. Ibuprofen
Ibuprofen is a NSAID that provides analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is suitable for managing pain and inflammation associated with abrasions.
E. Morphine
Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic and is generally reserved for severe pain, such as post-surgical pain or pain associated with more significant injuries. It may be excessive for managing pain from abrasions.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Bradycardia
Bradycardia is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine, which is included in the combination, has anticholinergic effects that can lead to an increased heart rate (tachycardia), not bradycardia.
B. Fluid retention
Fluid retention is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. In fact, the medication is used to treat severe diarrhea, and the goal is to decrease fluid loss associated with diarrhea rather than causing fluid retention.
C. Nervousness and tremors
Nervousness and tremors are not common side effects of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine's anticholinergic effects may cause nervousness, but these effects are generally not prominent at therapeutic doses.
D. Respiratory depression
This is the correct choice. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine, particularly if the medication is misused or taken in excessive amounts. Atropine is included in the combination to discourage misuse, as it can cause unpleasant anticholinergic effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Aspirin has the potential to cause gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding in children.
While it is true that aspirin can cause GI bleeding, this is not the primary concern in this scenario. Reye's syndrome, a severe and potentially fatal condition, is the more significant worry when aspirin is given to children with viral infections.
B. Aspirin has the potential to cause hyperglycemia.
Hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) is not a known effect of aspirin in children. Aspirin is not typically associated with glucose metabolism issues.
C. Aspirin has the potential to cause ringing in the ears (tinnitus) in children.
Tinnitus can occur with aspirin use, but it is not the primary concern in this situation. Reye's syndrome is a more serious and immediate risk associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections.
D. Aspirin has the potential to cause Reye's syndrome in children.
This is the correct and most significant concern. Reye's syndrome is a rare but severe condition associated with aspirin use in children during or after viral infections. It affects the liver and brain and can be life-threatening.
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