A patient is ordered bisacodyl (Dulcolax). Before administering the drug, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for what?

Hypertension

Anemia

Allergy to penicillin

Appendicitis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Hypertension
Hypertension is not a specific concern related to the use of bisacodyl. Bisacodyl is a laxative, and high blood pressure is not typically considered a contraindication for its use.

B. Anemia
Anemia is not a specific concern related to the use of bisacodyl. The primary focus before administering bisacodyl is to assess for signs or symptoms of appendicitis, as its use is contraindicated in cases of suspected appendicitis.

C. Allergy to penicillin
Allergy to penicillin is not relevant in the context of administering bisacodyl. These are unrelated medications with different mechanisms of action, and allergy to penicillin does not impact the administration of bisacodyl.

D. Appendicitis
This is the correct choice. Before administering bisacodyl, it is crucial to assess the patient for signs or symptoms of appendicitis. The use of bisacodyl is contraindicated in cases of suspected appendicitis, as it may stimulate bowel activity and worsen the condition.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Bradycardia

Bradycardia is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine, which is included in the combination, has anticholinergic effects that can lead to an increased heart rate (tachycardia), not bradycardia.

B. Fluid retention

Fluid retention is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. In fact, the medication is used to treat severe diarrhea, and the goal is to decrease fluid loss associated with diarrhea rather than causing fluid retention.

C. Nervousness and tremors

Nervousness and tremors are not common side effects of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine's anticholinergic effects may cause nervousness, but these effects are generally not prominent at therapeutic doses.

D. Respiratory depression

This is the correct choice. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine, particularly if the medication is misused or taken in excessive amounts. Atropine is included in the combination to discourage misuse, as it can cause unpleasant anticholinergic effects.

A. as requested by the patient. B. 1 hour after chemotherapy administration. C. The night before the treatment, the day of the treatment, and for 24 hours after the treatment. D. the day of treatment.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. As requested by the patient.

Administering the drug only when requested by the patient may not provide adequate prophylaxis against chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. These medications are often prescribed on a schedule to prevent symptoms rather than treating them reactively.

B. 1 hour after chemotherapy administration.

Waiting until 1 hour after chemotherapy administration may not cover the full period during which nausea and vomiting are likely to occur. The administration schedule for antiemetics is often more extended to provide better coverage.

C. The night before the treatment, the day of the treatment, and for 24 hours after the treatment.

This is the correct choice. Administering phenothiazine antiemetics according to this schedule helps ensure continuous coverage during the critical period when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting are most likely to occur.

D. The day of treatment.

Administering the drug only on the day of treatment may not provide sufficient coverage for the entire duration when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can occur. Again, the schedule mentioned in option C is more comprehensive for prevention.

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A patient is ordered bisacodyl (Dulcolax). Before administering the drug, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for what?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for an older adult who is receiving diphenoxylate with atropine to treat severe diarrhea. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient is ordered a phenothiazine antiemetic for treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The nurse will be evaluating for a positive effect. At what time should the nurse administer the drug?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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