A nurse understands that a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant would be indicated for a patient with which of the following health alterations?
Depression
Opiate overdose
Poor appetite
Narcolepsy
The Correct Answer is D
A. Depression:
CNS stimulants are generally not indicated for depression. In fact, they can exacerbate symptoms and are not considered a first-line treatment for depressive disorders.
B. Opiate overdose:
CNS stimulants are not indicated for treating opiate overdose. In cases of overdose, other medications like naloxone are commonly used to reverse the effects of opioids.
C. Poor appetite:
CNS stimulants may be used to increase alertness and decrease fatigue, but they are not typically prescribed to address poor appetite. Appetite stimulation is often managed through other approaches.
D. Narcolepsy:
This is the correct answer. CNS stimulants, such as modafinil or methylphenidate, are commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of narcolepsy. These medications help improve wakefulness and reduce excessive daytime sleepiness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Bradycardia
Bradycardia is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine, which is included in the combination, has anticholinergic effects that can lead to an increased heart rate (tachycardia), not bradycardia.
B. Fluid retention
Fluid retention is not a common side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine. In fact, the medication is used to treat severe diarrhea, and the goal is to decrease fluid loss associated with diarrhea rather than causing fluid retention.
C. Nervousness and tremors
Nervousness and tremors are not common side effects of diphenoxylate with atropine. Atropine's anticholinergic effects may cause nervousness, but these effects are generally not prominent at therapeutic doses.
D. Respiratory depression
This is the correct choice. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of diphenoxylate with atropine, particularly if the medication is misused or taken in excessive amounts. Atropine is included in the combination to discourage misuse, as it can cause unpleasant anticholinergic effects.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. As requested by the patient.
Administering the drug only when requested by the patient may not provide adequate prophylaxis against chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. These medications are often prescribed on a schedule to prevent symptoms rather than treating them reactively.
B. 1 hour after chemotherapy administration.
Waiting until 1 hour after chemotherapy administration may not cover the full period during which nausea and vomiting are likely to occur. The administration schedule for antiemetics is often more extended to provide better coverage.
C. The night before the treatment, the day of the treatment, and for 24 hours after the treatment.
This is the correct choice. Administering phenothiazine antiemetics according to this schedule helps ensure continuous coverage during the critical period when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting are most likely to occur.
D. The day of treatment.
Administering the drug only on the day of treatment may not provide sufficient coverage for the entire duration when chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can occur. Again, the schedule mentioned in option C is more comprehensive for prevention.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.