Patient Data
The nurse is linking the client's symptoms to the most likely pharmacologic treatment.
Choose the most likely option for the information missing from the statement by selecting from the list of options provided.
The most appropriate medication class to treat the client's presentation is a
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A"}
A. Opioid analgesics: The client reports severe, sharp, stabbing pain with breathing and movement due to multiple rib fractures. Opioids are effective for managing moderate to severe pain, allowing the client to breathe deeply, cough effectively, and reduce the risk of complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia.
B. Antibiotics: There is no evidence of infection in this client’s presentation. Antibiotics are not indicated for pain management related to rib fractures or atelectasis without infection.
C. Antacids: Antacids are used to treat gastrointestinal upset or acid-related conditions. They do not address musculoskeletal pain or improve respiratory function in rib fractures.
D. Bronchodilators: Bronchodilators relieve airway constriction in conditions like asthma or COPD. This client’s shallow breathing is due to pain, not bronchospasm, so bronchodilators are not appropriate.
E. Antihypertensives: While the client has slightly elevated blood pressure, antihypertensives do not relieve pain or improve respiratory effort, making them irrelevant for the acute management of rib fracture–related symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
• Respirations: Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can depress the respiratory center in the brainstem, leading to slowed breathing and hypoventilation. Monitoring respirations after administration is critical to detect early signs of opioid-induced respiratory depression.
• Ice application to the shoulder: Applying ice reduces swelling, pain, and inflammation by causing vasoconstriction and limiting fluid accumulation at the injury site. For an acute humeral fracture with significant swelling and bruising, cold therapy is the appropriate intervention.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Nausea: While morphine can cause nausea and vomiting as side effects, they are not the most life-threatening concerns compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring nausea is appropriate but not the priority when evaluating opioid safety.
• Blood pressure: Morphine can cause hypotension, but this effect is less common and typically secondary to respiratory depression and vasodilation. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure is helpful, but respiratory monitoring takes priority in detecting opioid complications.
• Early active range of motion: Active movement of the injured arm is not recommended immediately after a displaced humeral fracture, as it can worsen displacement and interfere with healing. Immobilization and stabilization are required before introducing range-of-motion exercises.
• Heat application to the shoulder: Heat increases blood flow to tissues, which can worsen swelling and bleeding in the acute phase of injury. Applying heat too soon after a fracture increases the risk of complications rather than reducing them.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A","dropdown-group-3":"E"}
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
• Cellulitis: The client presents with redness, warmth, swelling, and pain in the left lower leg, along with a small preceding cut. These findings are characteristic of cellulitis, a bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, often following a breach in the skin barrier.
• Break in skin: The small cut noted above the lateral ankle provides an entry point for bacteria, explaining the localized infection. A break in skin is a common precursor to cellulitis, particularly in clients with diabetes or vascular compromise.
• Left lower leg erythema: Erythema indicates inflammation and infection, which are hallmark signs of cellulitis. The presence of erythema, along with swelling and warmth, supports the clinical diagnosis of a bacterial skin infection.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Left lower leg erythema (as a diagnosis option): Erythema alone describes a symptom rather than a medical diagnosis. While present, it does not capture the underlying bacterial infection requiring treatment.
• Break in skin (as a diagnosis option): A break in the skin is a risk factor or contributing event, not a formal diagnosis. It explains how infection occurred but does not replace the clinical diagnosis of cellulitis.
• Cool, pale left leg: This finding is more indicative of arterial insufficiency or ischemia rather than infection. The client’s affected leg is warm and erythematous, which contrasts with cool, pale tissue.
• Intact skin: Intact skin would not allow bacterial entry and does not explain the localized infection. The client has a visible small cut that preceded the erythema.
• Dry scaly skin: While common in peripheral vascular disease or chronic dermatologic conditions, dry scaly skin does not explain the acute signs of infection seen in this client.
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