Patient Data
The nurse is linking the client's symptoms to the most likely pharmacologic treatment.
Choose the most likely option for the information missing from the statement by selecting from the list of options provided.
The most appropriate medication class to treat the client's presentation is a
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A"}
A. Opioid analgesics: The client reports severe, sharp, stabbing pain with breathing and movement due to multiple rib fractures. Opioids are effective for managing moderate to severe pain, allowing the client to breathe deeply, cough effectively, and reduce the risk of complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia.
B. Antibiotics: There is no evidence of infection in this client’s presentation. Antibiotics are not indicated for pain management related to rib fractures or atelectasis without infection.
C. Antacids: Antacids are used to treat gastrointestinal upset or acid-related conditions. They do not address musculoskeletal pain or improve respiratory function in rib fractures.
D. Bronchodilators: Bronchodilators relieve airway constriction in conditions like asthma or COPD. This client’s shallow breathing is due to pain, not bronchospasm, so bronchodilators are not appropriate.
E. Antihypertensives: While the client has slightly elevated blood pressure, antihypertensives do not relieve pain or improve respiratory effort, making them irrelevant for the acute management of rib fracture–related symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","F","G"]
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices
• Heart rate 128 beats/minute, sinus tachycardia: Tachycardia signals early compensatory response to hypovolemia or hemorrhagic shock, common with abdominal trauma. Immediate attention is needed to prevent cardiovascular collapse.
• Blood pressure 90/79 mm Hg, pulse pressure less than 40 mm Hg: A narrow pulse pressure with low systolic BP suggests inadequate stroke volume and poor perfusion, consistent with ongoing internal bleeding.
• Capillary refill 6 seconds: Prolonged refill indicates impaired peripheral perfusion and circulatory compromise, reinforcing concerns of shock.
• No urine output: Absence of urine is a critical marker of inadequate renal perfusion and systemic hypoperfusion, reflecting worsening shock status.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Temperature 96.9° F (36.1° C): Slightly low but not critical; mild hypothermia is common post-trauma and can be managed after stabilizing perfusion.
• Surgical dressing clean/dry with ecchymosis: Ecchymosis is expected after trauma and surgery, requiring monitoring but not immediate intervention.
• Heart sounds regular, lung sounds clear: No acute cardiopulmonary decompensation detected.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Polydipsia and polyuria: These symptoms are more commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus rather than hypertension. They are not direct complications of elevated blood pressure.
B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen: Hypertension can damage renal blood vessels, leading to impaired kidney function and elevated BUN levels. This is a significant complication that indicates progressive end-organ damage.
C. Dry and irritated skin: This is a nonspecific symptom that may result from dermatologic conditions, dehydration, or environmental factors. It is not typically associated with hypertension complications.
D. New onset of bradycardia: Bradycardia is not a usual complication of hypertension itself, though it may occur as a side effect of certain antihypertensive medications such as beta-blockers. It is not a primary complication to anticipate.
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