A client who is receiving zidovudine reports the appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin. Which result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Complete blood count.
Allergy test.
Skin biopsy.
Electromyography.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct- Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of HIV infection.
One of the potential side effects of zidovudine is hematological toxicity, including anemia (low red blood cell count) and neutropenia (low white blood cell count). The appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin could be indicative of petechiae, which are small hemorrhages caused by the leakage of blood into the skin. Petechiae can occur due to low platelet counts, a
component of the complete blood count (CBC). Monitoring the complete blood count is important for clients receiving zidovudine to identify any potential adverse effects on blood cell counts. Anemia and neutropenia can increase the risk of infection, bleeding, and other complications. Therefore, any changes in blood cell counts, including the presence of petechiae, should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
B) Incorrect- This is used to assess allergic reactions and is not specifically related to the appearance of petechiae.
C) Incorrect- A skin biopsy is typically performed to diagnose skin conditions or diseases and is not the primary assessment to evaluate the cause of petechiae.
D) Incorrect- Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess muscle and nerve function and is not relevant to the appearance of petechiae associated with zidovudine use.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Developing and implementing new screening protocols does not directly indicate the effectiveness of a primary prevention program. It might indicate improved detection, but not necessarily prevention.
B) Incorrect - This outcome relates to secondary prevention (rehabilitation after disease complications) rather than primary prevention.
C) Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D) Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is an outcome of early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
A. Understanding: The client recognizes that taking allergy medications before the hike might have helped prevent an exacerbation.
B. No understanding: The client doesn't realize that eating a snack could impact asthma symptoms. Proper education is needed here.
C. Understanding: The client acknowledges that exposure to cigarette smoke during the hike could have contributed to the exacerbation.
D. Understanding: The client identifies that stress management could be important in preventing asthma exacerbations.
E. No understanding: The client is not aware that taking an extra dose of Fluticasone-Salmeterol could have been beneficial. Further education is necessary.
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