On the second postoperative day, a client reports increasing abdominal pain. Assessment findings include a distended abdomen with absent bowel sounds. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate implementing?
Administering a PRN cathartic.
Reducing IV fluid to a keep-open rate.
Advancing diet to full liquids.
Insertion of a nasogastric tube.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: A cathartic is contraindicated, as pain, distension, and absent bowel sounds suggest postoperative ileus or obstruction, where peristalsis is impaired. Cathartics risk perforation. A nasogastric tube decompresses the bowel, addressing gastrointestinal stasis, preventing complications like vomiting or rupture.
Choice B reason: Reducing IV fluids does not address pain, distension, or absent bowel sounds, indicating ileus or obstruction. Fluids maintain hydration, but nasogastric tube insertion relieves bowel pressure from gas and fluid, restoring function, making fluid reduction ineffective for this postoperative complication.
Choice C reason: Advancing to liquids is inappropriate with absent bowel sounds and distension, indicating ileus, risking vomiting or aspiration. A nasogastric tube removes gastric contents, allowing bowel recovery. Oral intake worsens obstruction, making this contraindicated compared to decompression for safe recovery.
Choice D reason: Nasogastric tube insertion is critical for pain, distension, and absent bowel sounds, suggesting postoperative ileus or obstruction. It decompresses the stomach, removing gas and fluid, reducing pressure and preventing perforation. This addresses the pathophysiological basis of impaired motility, ensuring safe postoperative recovery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Topical corticosteroids reduce eczema’s inflammation by inhibiting cytokines, alleviating antecubital vesicles. Heat lamps dry skin, worsening irritation and cracking. Encouraging steroids addresses the inflammatory pathophysiology, promoting healing, making this the most effective response for managing eczema and correcting harmful self-treatment.
Choice B reason: Chemical debridement is for necrotic tissue, not eczema’s inflammatory vesicles. Heat lamps exacerbate dryness, but debridement does not address immune-mediated inflammation. Corticosteroids target the cytokine-driven process, making debridement inappropriate for eczema’s pathophysiology, which requires anti-inflammatory treatment.
Choice C reason: Restricting heat to 15–20 minutes does not mitigate harm, as heat dries eczema lesions, disrupting the skin barrier and increasing infection risk. Corticosteroids reduce inflammation, addressing vesicles. Heat worsens epidermal damage, making this response ineffective compared to targeting the inflammatory cause.
Choice D reason: A sling for arm elevation is irrelevant for localized eczema, an inflammatory dermatitis, not edema requiring elevation. Heat lamps aggravate dryness, and corticosteroids treat inflammation, addressing immune-mediated pathology more effectively than positional changes, which do not impact eczema’s skin symptoms.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring serum potassium is relevant, as lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone, impairing potassium excretion. Skin turgor, however, assesses hydration, not ACE inhibitor effects. Blood pressure monitoring is more critical, as lisinopril lowers blood pressure via vasodilation, risking hypotension and falls, especially in elderly clients.
Choice B reason: Eosinophil count and constipation are unrelated to lisinopril’s effects. Elevated eosinophils may suggest allergies, but this is rare with ACE inhibitors. Constipation is not a common side effect. Lisinopril’s primary action is renin-angiotensin inhibition, making blood pressure and fall risk monitoring more urgent to prevent hypotensive complications.
Choice C reason: Lisinopril reduces angiotensin II, promoting vasodilation and lowering blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure detects hypotension, which increases fall risk, particularly in older adults, due to dizziness or orthostatic changes. This directly assesses the drug’s cardiovascular effects, ensuring safety by preventing falls or syncope, making it the priority assessment.
Choice D reason: Heart rate and nausea are not primary lisinopril concerns. Tachycardia may occur secondary to hypotension, and nausea is rare. The drug’s main effect is blood pressure reduction via ACE inhibition, necessitating monitoring for hypotension and fall risk to ensure patient safety, as these are more immediate and significant pharmacological effects.
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