A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is contracting every 2 minutes, and her cervix is 9 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The fetal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. The client is screaming and her husband is alarmed. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Administer a PRN narcotic.
Ask the husband to step out.
Have delivery table set up.
Notify rapid response team.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Administering a PRN narcotic at 9 cm dilation is inappropriate, as labor is in transition, nearing delivery. Narcotics risk fetal respiratory depression, crossing the placenta, especially with a stable fetal heart rate (120 beats/minute). Preparing for imminent delivery is critical, prioritizing a safe birth environment over pain relief.
Choice B reason: Asking the husband to leave does not address the client’s advanced labor (9 cm, 100% effaced, frequent contractions). His presence may provide support, and removal could increase distress. Setting up the delivery table is urgent, as birth is imminent, ensuring a sterile, safe environment for delivery.
Choice C reason: At 9 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and contractions every 2 minutes, the client is in transition, with delivery imminent. Setting up the delivery table ensures readiness for vaginal birth, providing a sterile field and equipment, addressing the physiological progression of labor for safe delivery of the newborn.
Choice D reason: Notifying the rapid response team is unnecessary, as the fetal heart rate (120 beats/minute) is normal (110–160), and screaming reflects labor pain. Delivery is imminent, making table setup the priority to facilitate safe birth, avoiding escalation to emergency response for a normal labor progression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A red blood cell count of 3.5 x 10⁶/µL indicates anemia from myelosuppression, reducing oxygen transport. RBCs do not fight infection, so this does not support “risk for infection.” Low WBCs impair immune defense, increasing infection susceptibility, making WBC count more relevant to the nursing problem in this context.
Choice B reason: A WBC count of 1,500/mm³ indicates severe leukopenia from myelosuppression, reducing neutrophil production. This impairs immune response, significantly raising infection risk, as pathogens overwhelm the body’s defenses. This lab value directly supports “risk for infection,” necessitating precautions like isolation or antibiotics to prevent opportunistic infections.
Choice C reason: Hematocrit of 33% reflects anemia in myelosuppression, lowering oxygen delivery. This causes fatigue but does not increase infection risk, as RBCs are not immune cells. WBCs, particularly neutrophils, are critical for infection defense, making low WBC count more relevant to the nursing problem than hematocrit.
Choice D reason: Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL indicates anemia, reducing oxygen-carrying capacity in myelosuppression. This does not directly increase infection risk, as hemoglobin is not involved in immunity. Low WBCs compromise pathogen defense, making WBC count the key value supporting “risk for infection” in this client’s care plan.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Crackles in bilateral lower lobes indicate pulmonary edema in heart failure, where reduced cardiac output causes fluid backup into alveoli, impairing gas exchange and causing dyspnea. This life-threatening emergency requires immediate diuretics or oxygen to reduce preload, preventing respiratory failure or hypoxia, prioritizing intervention.
Choice B reason: A heart rate of 92 beats/minute is normal and not urgent in heart failure, where dyspnea and fatigue suggest fluid overload. Crackles indicate pulmonary edema, a critical issue compromising oxygenation, necessitating immediate action to restore respiratory function, making heart rate less concerning.
Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg is mildly elevated but not critical in heart failure. Crackles signal pulmonary edema, where fluid in alveoli impairs gas exchange, risking hypoxia. This requires urgent intervention like furosemide, as respiratory compromise is more immediate than managing stable blood pressure.
Choice D reason: Peripheral edema 1+ indicates fluid retention in heart failure but is less urgent than crackles, which signify pulmonary edema. Alveolar fluid causes dyspnea and hypoxia, requiring immediate diuretics. Edema is chronic, making respiratory assessment and intervention the priority to prevent acute respiratory failure.
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