The nurse measures the client’s blood pressure (BP) and notes that it is significantly higher than the previous reading. Which should the nurse do next? (Select all that apply)

Immediately take 2 more readings on the same arm.

Assign the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to recheck the BP in an hour.

Retake the client’s blood pressure in the opposite arm.

Ask another nurse to assist in assessing for an apical-radial pulse deficit.

Determine the client’s activity and feelings prior to the BP measurement.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,E

Choice A reason: Taking two more readings confirms elevated BP, as a single reading may reflect technique errors or transient factors like pain, which increase sympathetic activity and vasoconstriction. Multiple readings ensure accuracy, critical for diagnosing hypertension and guiding intervention to prevent cardiovascular complications like stroke.

Choice B reason: Assigning a UAP to recheck BP in an hour delays assessment of potentially dangerous hypertension, which risks acute complications like myocardial ischemia. Immediate confirmation is needed, as elevated BP from norepinephrine release increases vascular resistance, making delayed rechecking inappropriate for urgent evaluation.

Choice C reason: Retaking BP in the opposite arm verifies accuracy, as differences may indicate arterial occlusion. Elevated BP increases catecholamine-driven vascular resistance. Measuring both arms rules out localized issues, ensuring reliable data to guide management of hypertension, critical to prevent end-organ damage like renal failure.

Choice D reason: Assessing apical-radial pulse deficit is relevant for atrial fibrillation, not directly for elevated BP. Hypertension results from increased vascular resistance, not pulse discrepancies. Confirming BP and assessing context are more immediate to determine urgency, making this less relevant than verifying readings or identifying triggers.

Choice E reason: Determining activity and feelings identifies transient BP elevation causes, like stress or exercise, which raise norepinephrine, increasing heart rate and vascular tone. This contextualizes the reading, differentiating situational from chronic hypertension, ensuring appropriate intervention to manage cardiovascular risk and guide further assessment.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: A blood pressure of 100/80 mm Hg is low but not specific for renal perfusion without context. Urinary output directly reflects kidney function, with 30 mL/hour indicating possible oliguria. Monitoring output is critical, per renal assessment and acute kidney injury management protocols in nursing care.

Choice B reason: Abdominal pulse on inspection is unrelated to renal perfusion, typically indicating vascular issues like aneurysms. Urinary output is a direct indicator of kidney function, with 30 mL/hour suggesting reduced perfusion. This is irrelevant, per renal assessment and diagnostic standards in nephrology nursing.

Choice C reason: Urinalysis with 1 to 4 WBC/lpf is within normal range and suggests no infection. Urinary output of 30 mL/hour is concerning for decreased renal perfusion, requiring close monitoring. WBCs are less critical, per renal function and acute kidney injury assessment guidelines in nursing.

Choice D reason: Urinary output of 30 mL/hour indicates possible oliguria, a key sign of decreased renal perfusion. Monitoring this parameter assesses kidney function, guiding interventions to prevent acute kidney injury. It is the most direct indicator, per renal perfusion and critical care protocols in nephrology nursing practice.

A. Encourage oral electrolyte solution intake. B. Contact their healthcare provider immediately. C. Provide a quiet time by holding or rocking the toddler. D. Assist the child to a recumbent position.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Electrolyte solutions address dehydration but are inappropriate for pale, cool, lethargic symptoms in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), indicating a hypercyanotic spell from right-to-left shunting. Urgent medical intervention restores oxygenation, making this inadequate compared to addressing the critical hypoxic episode requiring provider attention.

Choice B reason: Pale, cool, lethargy in TOF signals a hypercyanotic spell, where pulmonary stenosis increases right-to-left shunting, causing cyanosis and hypoxia. Contacting the provider ensures rapid interventions (e.g., oxygen, beta-blockers), preventing cerebral hypoxia or cardiac arrest, addressing the urgent pathophysiological crisis effectively.

Choice C reason: Quiet time by holding or rocking may calm the toddler but does not treat hypoxic spells in TOF, where pale, cool symptoms indicate shunting and hypoxia. Delaying medical intervention risks severe hypoxia, making this less critical than contacting the provider for urgent management.

Choice D reason: A recumbent position worsens TOF’s hypercyanotic spell, increasing venous return and shunting, exacerbating hypoxia. Knee-chest positioning reduces shunting. Contacting the provider is urgent to address pale, cool, lethargic symptoms, ensuring interventions to restore oxygenation, making this position contraindicated.

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The nurse measures the client’s blood pressure (BP) and notes that it is significantly higher than the previous reading. Which should the nurse do next? (Select all that apply)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assessing a client who is admitted to the renal unit with suspected decreased renal perfusion. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor which parameter? Reference Range: Urine white blood cells (WBC) [0 to 4 WBC/low powered field (lpf)]

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Following admission for a cardiac catheterization, the nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old toddler with Tetralogy of Fallot. Which instruction should the nurse give the parents if their child becomes pale, cool, and lethargic?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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