Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Perform a complete mental status exam.

Determine if the client has had a shingles vaccination.

Teach the client about phantom pain symptoms.

Complete an assessment of the client's pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because performing a complete mental status exam is not a relevant or appropriate action for the nurse to implement. A mental status exam is used to evaluate the client's cognitive, emotional, and behavioral functioning, but it does not address the client's physical pain or its underlying cause.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because determining if the client has had a shingles vaccination is not a priority or helpful action for the nurse to implement. A shingles vaccination is recommended for people who are 50 years or older to prevent or reduce the severity of shingles, but it does not affect the occurrence or treatment of postherpetic neuralgia, which is a chronic pain condition that can develop after shingles.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because teaching the client about phantom pain symptoms is not an accurate or useful action for the nurse to implement. Phantom pain is a type of neuropathic pain that occurs when a person feels pain in a body part that has been amputated or removed. However, this is not the case for the client who has pain in the area where the shingles rash occurred.

Choice D reason: This is correct because completing an assessment of the client's pain is the most important action for the nurse to implement. Pain assessment involves collecting information about the location, intensity, quality, duration, frequency, and aggravating or relieving factors of the pain, as well as its impact on the client's daily activities and quality of life. This can help the nurse identify the cause and severity of the pain, as well as plan and evaluate appropriate interventions.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, stress, infection, or medication. Hyperglycemia can cause symptoms such as thirst, hunger, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice B reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% indicates poor glycemic control over the past three months. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or hemoglobinopathy. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of red blood cells, which is about 120 days. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice C reason: Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L) indicates mild azotemia, which is a high level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood. It can be caused by dehydration, high protein intake, gastrointestinal bleeding, or kidney impairment. Azotemia can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice D reason: Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) indicates moderate renal insufficiency, which is a reduced ability of the kidneys to filter and excrete waste products and fluids from the body. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or nephrotoxic drugs. Renal insufficiency can cause symptoms such as edema, anemia, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. It can also increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, which is a sudden deterioration of kidney function after exposure to contrast media used for imaging studies such as MRI. Contrast-induced nephropathy can lead to acute kidney injury, dialysis requirement, or even death. Therefore, serum creatinine should be reported to the healthcare provider before MRI with contrast to assess the risk and benefit of the procedure and to take preventive measures such as hydration, medication adjustment, or alternative imaging modalities.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

For Potential Conditions:

The correct answer is c) Abdominal compartment syndrome.

Choice A reason: Pneumothorax is a condition where air leaks into the pleural space, causing lung collapse and impaired gas exchange. It can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, chest pain, and decreased breath sounds on the affected side. However, it does not cause abdominal distension, acidosis, or hyperglycemia.

Choice B reason: Pulmonary embolism is a condition where a blood clot blocks one or more pulmonary arteries, causing impaired gas exchange and reduced blood flow to the lungs. It can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, chest pain, and tachycardia. However, it does not cause abdominal distension, acidosis, or hyperglycemia.

Choice C reason: Abdominal compartment syndrome is a condition where increased intra-abdominal pressure causes reduced blood flow to the abdominal organs and impaired diaphragm movement. It can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, abdominal distension, acidosis, decreased urine output, and organ failure. It is a common complication of cirrhosis with ascites.

Choice D reason: Sepsis is a condition where a systemic inflammatory response to an infection causes organ dysfunction and hypoperfusion. It can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, fever or hypothermia, tachycardia, acidosis, and hyperglycemia. However, it does not cause abdominal distension unless there is an intra-abdominal infection.

The two actions the nurse should take to address abdominal compartment syndrome are:

Prepare the client for a paracentesis: Paracentesis is a procedure where a needle or catheter is inserted into the peritoneal cavity to drain excess fluid and reduce intra-abdominal pressure.
Place an intravenous line to start fluid boluses: Fluid boluses are given to maintain adequate blood pressure and perfusion to the vital organs.

The two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress are:

Oxygen saturation: Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in the blood. It should be maintained above 90% to ensure adequate oxygen delivery to the tissues.
Urine output: Urine output reflects the function of the kidneys and the perfusion of the renal arteries. It should be maintained above 0.5 mL/kg/hour to prevent acute kidney injury and electrolyte imbalances.

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Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Patient Data Exhibits Drag from the choices area to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

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