Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Perform a complete mental status exam.

Determine if the client has had a shingles vaccination.

Teach the client about phantom pain symptoms.

Complete an assessment of the client's pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because performing a complete mental status exam is not a relevant or appropriate action for the nurse to implement. A mental status exam is used to evaluate the client's cognitive, emotional, and behavioral functioning, but it does not address the client's physical pain or its underlying cause.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because determining if the client has had a shingles vaccination is not a priority or helpful action for the nurse to implement. A shingles vaccination is recommended for people who are 50 years or older to prevent or reduce the severity of shingles, but it does not affect the occurrence or treatment of postherpetic neuralgia, which is a chronic pain condition that can develop after shingles.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because teaching the client about phantom pain symptoms is not an accurate or useful action for the nurse to implement. Phantom pain is a type of neuropathic pain that occurs when a person feels pain in a body part that has been amputated or removed. However, this is not the case for the client who has pain in the area where the shingles rash occurred.

Choice D reason: This is correct because completing an assessment of the client's pain is the most important action for the nurse to implement. Pain assessment involves collecting information about the location, intensity, quality, duration, frequency, and aggravating or relieving factors of the pain, as well as its impact on the client's daily activities and quality of life. This can help the nurse identify the cause and severity of the pain, as well as plan and evaluate appropriate interventions.

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Correct Answer is []

Explanation

The client is most likely experiencing compartment syndrome, which is a condition where increased pressure within a closed space compromises blood flow and tissue perfusion. Compartment syndrome can occur after a fracture, especially if a cast or splint is applied too tightly. Some of the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome are severe pain, paresthesia, pallor, and pulselessness.
Two actions the nurse should take to address compartment syndrome are:
- Elevate the extremity above the level of the heart to reduce swelling and improve venous return.
- Remove the cast or loosen the dressing to relieve the pressure and restore blood flow. This may require notifying the physician or obtaining an order for bivalving or cutting the cast.
Two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s condition are:
- Capillary refill of the affected fingers, which should be less than 3 seconds. A prolonged capillary refill indicates poor perfusion and tissue ischemia.
- Blood pressure of the client, which should be maintained within normal limits. Hypotension can worsen the perfusion deficit and lead to tissue necrosis.

A. Irregular ulcer shapes and severe edema. B. Hairless lower extremities and cool feet. C. Black ulcers and dependent rubor. D. Absent pedal pulses and shiny skin.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Irregular ulcer shapes and severe edema are characteristic of venous ulcers, which are caused by impaired venous return and increased capillary pressure. Venous ulcers are usually located near the medial malleolus and have a shallow depth.

Choice B reason: Hairless lower extremities and cool feet are signs of arterial insufficiency, which reduces blood flow and oxygen delivery to the tissues. Arterial ulcers are usually located on the toes, heels, or lateral malleoli and have a deep, punched-out appearance.

Choice C reason: Black ulcers and dependent rubor are also signs of arterial insufficiency, indicating tissue necrosis and inflammation. Dependent rubor is a reddish-blue color of the lower extremity that occurs when the leg is lowered below the level of the heart.

Choice D reason: Absent pedal pulses and shiny skin are also signs of arterial insufficiency, indicating reduced blood flow and atrophy of the skin. The skin may also be dry, scaly, or cracked.

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Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exhibits Specify which potential condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s response.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

In assessing a client with ulcers on the lower extremity, which findings indicate that the ulcers are likely to be of venous, rather than arterial, origin?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an upper respiratory infection. Which changes in blood glucose management should the client expect?

Patient Data Exhibits Drag from the choices area to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.

While completing a health assessment for a young adult female with acute appendicitis, the client informs the nurse that there is a chance that she may be pregnant. The operating team is preparing to take the client to surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?