Exhibits

Specify which potential condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s response.

Focused assesment area : Neurological

The correct answer is B. Speaks in short sentences.

Choice A: Drinks with repetitive cough. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has difficulty swallowing, which is a common complication of ischemic stroke. Swallowing problems can lead to aspiration pneumonia, dehydration, and malnutrition. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke¹.

Choice B: Speaks in short sentences. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient's speech has improved from being garbled to being intelligible. Speech impairment is a common symptom of ischemic stroke, especially when the left hemisphere of the brain is affected. Early intervention with thrombolytic therapy or mechanical thrombectomy can restore blood flow to the affected brain tissue and reduce the extent of damage². Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice C: Decorticate posturing. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has severe brain damage and is in a state of coma. Decorticate posturing is a type of abnormal posture that occurs when the upper limbs flex and the lower limbs extend in response to pain or stimulation. It indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres or the internal capsule³. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Focused assesment area : Muscoskeletal

The correct answer is B. Ambulates with a walker.

Choice A: Flaccidity of left arm. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has weakness or paralysis of the left arm, which is a common symptom of ischemic stroke. Flaccidity is the absence of muscle tone or resistance to passive movement. It indicates damage to the motor cortex or the corticospinal tract. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice B: Ambulates with a walker. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient has regained some mobility and independence after the ischemic stroke. Ambulation is the ability to walk or move from one place to another. Early intervention with physical therapy and rehabilitation can help improve the patient's functional recovery and prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis, pressure ulcers, and contractures. Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice C: Passive range of motion on left leg. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has limited or no voluntary movement of the left leg, which is another common symptom of ischemic stroke. Passive range of motion is the movement of a joint or limb by an external force, such as a therapist or a caregiver. It indicates damage to the motor cortex or the corticospinal tract. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Focused assesment area : Psychosocial

The correct answer is B. Tearful sharing of stories.

Choice A: Fits of laughter. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has inappropriate emotional responses, which is a common complication of ischemic stroke. Inappropriate emotional responses are sudden and uncontrollable episodes of laughing or crying that are out of context or disproportionate to the situation. They indicate damage to the brain regions that regulate emotions, such as the frontal lobe, the thalamus, or the brainstem. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice B: Tearful sharing of stories. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient has improved social and emotional functioning after the ischemic stroke. Tearful sharing of stories is a normal and healthy way of expressing emotions and coping with stress. It also shows that the patient has preserved memory and language skills, which are often impaired by ischemic stroke. Early intervention with psychological support and counseling can help the patient deal with the emotional impact of stroke and improve their quality of life. Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice C: Angry outburst. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has mood disturbances, which is another common complication of ischemic stroke. Mood disturbances are changes in the patient's emotional state, such as depression, anxiety, irritability, or aggression. They indicate damage to the brain regions that regulate mood, such as the frontal lobe, the amygdala, or the hippocampus. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice A reason: Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, stress, infection, or medication. Hyperglycemia can cause symptoms such as thirst, hunger, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice B reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% indicates poor glycemic control over the past three months. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or hemoglobinopathy. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of red blood cells, which is about 120 days. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice C reason: Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L) indicates mild azotemia, which is a high level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood. It can be caused by dehydration, high protein intake, gastrointestinal bleeding, or kidney impairment. Azotemia can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice D reason: Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) indicates moderate renal insufficiency, which is a reduced ability of the kidneys to filter and excrete waste products and fluids from the body. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or nephrotoxic drugs. Renal insufficiency can cause symptoms such as edema, anemia, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. It can also increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, which is a sudden deterioration of kidney function after exposure to contrast media used for imaging studies such as MRI. Contrast-induced nephropathy can lead to acute kidney injury, dialysis requirement, or even death. Therefore, serum creatinine should be reported to the healthcare provider before MRI with contrast to assess the risk and benefit of the procedure and to take preventive measures such as hydration, medication adjustment, or alternative imaging modalities.