The nurse is preparing an older client for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the scan is performed?

Reference Range:
Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) [4% to 5.9%]
Creatinine [0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 umol/L)]
Glucose [74 to 106 mg/dL (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L)]
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) [10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L)]

Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L).

Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8%.

Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L).

Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, stress, infection, or medication. Hyperglycemia can cause symptoms such as thirst, hunger, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice B reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% indicates poor glycemic control over the past three months. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or hemoglobinopathy. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of red blood cells, which is about 120 days. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice C reason: Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L) indicates mild azotemia, which is a high level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood. It can be caused by dehydration, high protein intake, gastrointestinal bleeding, or kidney impairment. Azotemia can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice D reason: Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) indicates moderate renal insufficiency, which is a reduced ability of the kidneys to filter and excrete waste products and fluids from the body. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or nephrotoxic drugs. Renal insufficiency can cause symptoms such as edema, anemia, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. It can also increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, which is a sudden deterioration of kidney function after exposure to contrast media used for imaging studies such as MRI. Contrast-induced nephropathy can lead to acute kidney injury, dialysis requirement, or even death. Therefore, serum creatinine should be reported to the healthcare provider before MRI with contrast to assess the risk and benefit of the procedure and to take preventive measures such as hydration, medication adjustment, or alternative imaging modalities.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because reviewing the need for pneumococcal vaccine is not the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for people who are at high risk of pneumococcal infections, such as those with chronic diseases or immunosuppression. However, it is not a priority action for a client with neutropenia, which is a low number of neutrophils that increases the risk of bacterial and fungal infections.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because implementing bleeding precautions is not the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Bleeding precautions are indicated for clients who have thrombocytopenia, which is a low number of platelets that impairs blood clotting. However, this is not the case for a client with neutropenia, which affects the white blood cells that fight infections.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because assessing vital signs every 4 hours is not the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Vital signs are important indicators of the client's health status and may reveal signs of infection, such as fever, tachycardia, or hypotension. However, this is not a sufficient measure to prevent or treat infections in a client with neutropenia, who needs more aggressive and proactive interventions.

Choice D reason: This is correct because placing the client in protective isolation is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Protective isolation, also known as reverse isolation or neutropenic precautions, is a set of measures that aim to protect the client from exposure to pathogens that may cause infections. These include wearing gloves, masks, gowns, and eye protection; using sterile equipment and techniques; avoiding contact with people who are sick or have infections; and restricting visitors and fresh flowers or fruits.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

The client is most likely experiencing compartment syndrome, which is a condition where increased pressure within a closed space compromises blood flow and tissue perfusion. Compartment syndrome can occur after a fracture, especially if a cast or splint is applied too tightly. Some of the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome are severe pain, paresthesia, pallor, and pulselessness.
Two actions the nurse should take to address compartment syndrome are:
- Elevate the extremity above the level of the heart to reduce swelling and improve venous return.
- Remove the cast or loosen the dressing to relieve the pressure and restore blood flow. This may require notifying the physician or obtaining an order for bivalving or cutting the cast.
Two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s condition are:
- Capillary refill of the affected fingers, which should be less than 3 seconds. A prolonged capillary refill indicates poor perfusion and tissue ischemia.
- Blood pressure of the client, which should be maintained within normal limits. Hypotension can worsen the perfusion deficit and lead to tissue necrosis.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm³ (0.5 x 10⁹/L) after completing chemotherapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Reference Range: Neutrophils (ANC) [2500 to 5800/mm³ (2.5 to 5.8 x 10⁹/L)]

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Exhibits Specify which potential condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s response.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

Exhibits The nurse is reviewing the physician orders. Which of the following physician’s orders requires priority attention from the nurse? Select all that apply.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease is to begin hemodialysis treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in client education?

A client who had a biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BPD) 3 months ago is admitted with severe dehydration. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

A client with a closed head injury demonstrates signs of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which additional finding should the nurse expect to obtain?

Patient Data Exhibits Drag from the choices area to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.