The nurse is preparing an older client for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the scan is performed?
Reference Range:
Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) [4% to 5.9%]
Creatinine [0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 umol/L)]
Glucose [74 to 106 mg/dL (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L)]
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) [10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L)]
Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L).
Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8%.
Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L).
Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L).
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, stress, infection, or medication. Hyperglycemia can cause symptoms such as thirst, hunger, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.
Choice B reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% indicates poor glycemic control over the past three months. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or hemoglobinopathy. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of red blood cells, which is about 120 days. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.
Choice C reason: Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L) indicates mild azotemia, which is a high level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood. It can be caused by dehydration, high protein intake, gastrointestinal bleeding, or kidney impairment. Azotemia can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.
Choice D reason: Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) indicates moderate renal insufficiency, which is a reduced ability of the kidneys to filter and excrete waste products and fluids from the body. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or nephrotoxic drugs. Renal insufficiency can cause symptoms such as edema, anemia, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. It can also increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, which is a sudden deterioration of kidney function after exposure to contrast media used for imaging studies such as MRI. Contrast-induced nephropathy can lead to acute kidney injury, dialysis requirement, or even death. Therefore, serum creatinine should be reported to the healthcare provider before MRI with contrast to assess the risk and benefit of the procedure and to take preventive measures such as hydration, medication adjustment, or alternative imaging modalities.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B", "C","D"]
Explanation
- Choice A: Occupational therapist. This is correct because an occupational therapist can help the client with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as dressing, grooming, eating, and toileting. The client may have difficulty performing these tasks due to the facial droop and weakness caused by the stroke.
- Choice B: Speech therapist. This is correct because a speech therapist can help the client with communication and swallowing problems. The client has garbled speech, which indicates a possible aphasia or dysarthria. The client may also have dysphagia, which is difficulty swallowing, due to the impaired coordination of the muscles involved in swallowing.
- Choice C: Case manager. This is correct because a case manager can coordinate the client's care and discharge planning. The case manager can arrange for referrals, home health services, equipment, and follow-up appointments as needed. The case manager can also provide education and support to the client and family.
- Choice D: Physical therapist. This is correct because a physical therapist can help the client with mobility and balance issues. The client may have hemiparesis or hemiplegia, which is weakness or paralysis of one side of the body. The physical therapist can assist the client with exercises, gait training, and assistive devices to improve the client's functional status.
- Choice E: Chief nursing officer. This is incorrect because a chief nursing officer is not directly involved in the client's recovery. A chief nursing officer is a senior-level executive who oversees the nursing staff and operations of a health care organization. A chief nursing officer may have a role in quality improvement, policy development, and strategic planning, but not in individual client care.
- Choice F: Pharmacy technician. This is incorrect because a pharmacy technician is not directly involved in the client's recovery. A pharmacy technician is a health care professional who assists pharmacists with dispensing medications and other tasks. A pharmacy technician may have a role in preparing, labeling, and delivering medications, but not in providing therapy or education to the client.
- Choice G: Respiratory therapist. This is incorrect because a respiratory therapist is not directly involved in the client's recovery. A respiratory therapist is a health care professional who provides respiratory care to patients with breathing problems. A respiratory therapist may have a role in administering oxygen, nebulizers, ventilators, and other respiratory treatments, but not in addressing the client's stroke-related impairments.
- Choice H: Medical assistant. This is incorrect because a medical assistant is not directly involved in the client's recovery. A medical assistant is a health care professional who performs administrative and clinical tasks in a medical office or clinic. A medical assistant may have a role in scheduling appointments, taking vital signs, drawing blood, and performing basic laboratory tests, but not in providing rehabilitation or education to the client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because hepatorenal failure is a condition that involves both liver and kidney dysfunction, usually as a complication of cirrhosis or portal hypertension. The symptoms of hepatorenal failure may include jaundice, ascites, edema, oliguria, or encephalopathy. However, these are not consistent with the client's presentation of fever, abdominal pain, vomiting, and elevated amylase and lipase levels.
Choice B reason: This is correct because acute pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas that can be caused by gallstones, alcohol abuse, trauma, infection, or drugs. The symptoms of acute pancreatitis may include fever, upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated amylase and lipase levels. These are consistent with the client's presentation and suggest that the cholecystectomy may have triggered an attack of acute pancreatitis.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because surgical site infection is an infection that occurs at or near the incision site after surgery. The symptoms of surgical site infection may include redness, swelling, warmth, pus drainage, or pain at the wound site. However, these are not consistent with the client's presentation of fever, abdominal pain radiating to the back, vomiting, and elevated amylase and lipase levels.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because biliary duct obstruction is a blockage of the bile ducts that carry bile from the liver and gallbladder to the intestine. The causes of biliary duct obstruction may include gallstones, tumors, inflammation, or scarring. The symptoms of biliary duct obstruction may include jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, itching, or abdominal pain. However, these are not consistent with the client's presentation of fever, abdominal pain radiating to the back, vomiting, and elevated amylase and lipase levels.
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