A patient experiences residual effects following an acute attack of Ménière's disease and receives a new prescription for an antihistamine. Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

a) The client's age: The client is 70 years old, which puts her at a higher risk of having a stroke or other cardiovascular problems. Stroke is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent brain damage and disability.

b) The client's facial droop: The client has a noticeable facial droop, which is a sign of facial nerve weakness or paralysis. This can be caused by a stroke, Bell's palsy, or other neurological conditions. Facial droop can affect the client's ability to speak, eat, and express emotions.

c) The client's garbled speech: The client has garbled speech, which means she has difficulty producing or understanding words. This can be caused by a stroke, brain injury, or other disorders that affect the language areas of the brain. Garbled speech can impair the client's communication and cognition.

d) The client's alcohol consumption: The client had a few drinks at a seafood restaurant, which may have interacted with her medications or medical conditions. Alcohol can increase the risk of bleeding, lower blood pressure, and worsen dehydration. Alcohol can also impair the client's judgment and coordination.

e) The client's seafood intake: The client ate seafood at a restaurant, which may have triggered an allergic reaction or food poisoning. Seafood allergies can cause symptoms such as hives, swelling, breathing difficulties, and anaphylaxis. Food poisoning can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.

Choice A reason: Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, stress, infection, or medication. Hyperglycemia can cause symptoms such as thirst, hunger, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice B reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% indicates poor glycemic control over the past three months. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or hemoglobinopathy. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of red blood cells, which is about 120 days. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice C reason: Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L) indicates mild azotemia, which is a high level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood. It can be caused by dehydration, high protein intake, gastrointestinal bleeding, or kidney impairment. Azotemia can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.

Choice D reason: Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) indicates moderate renal insufficiency, which is a reduced ability of the kidneys to filter and excrete waste products and fluids from the body. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or nephrotoxic drugs. Renal insufficiency can cause symptoms such as edema, anemia, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. It can also increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, which is a sudden deterioration of kidney function after exposure to contrast media used for imaging studies such as MRI. Contrast-induced nephropathy can lead to acute kidney injury, dialysis requirement, or even death. Therefore, serum creatinine should be reported to the healthcare provider before MRI with contrast to assess the risk and benefit of the procedure and to take preventive measures such as hydration, medication adjustment, or alternative imaging modalities.