After initiating a steroid nebulizer treatment for a client with asthma in respiratory distress, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Monitor pulse oximetry every 2 hours.
Teach proper use of a rescue inhaler.
Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees.
Determine exposure to asthmatic triggers.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is not a sufficient or timely intervention for the nurse to implement. Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal oxygen saturation is 95% to 100%, while hypoxemia is less than 90%. However, pulse oximetry may not reflect the severity of respiratory distress or the effectiveness of nebulizer treatment in a client with asthma. Moreover, monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is too infrequent for a client who is in acute respiratory distress and needs more frequent assessment and intervention.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not a priority or relevant intervention for the nurse to implement. A rescue inhaler is a type of short-acting bronchodilator that can be used to relieve acute asthma symptoms by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways and improving airflow. However, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not an urgent action for a client who is already receiving nebulizer treatment, which delivers a higher dose of medication directly to the lungs. Moreover, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not appropriate for a client who is in respiratory distress and may not be able to focus or retain information.
Choice C reason: This is correct because elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees can help improve breathing and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and chest wall, increasing lung expansion and ventilation, and facilitating expectoration of mucus. This can enhance the effects of nebulizer treatment and reduce respiratory distress in a client with asthma.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not an immediate or helpful intervention for the nurse to implement. Asthmatic triggers are substances or factors that can cause or worsen asthma symptoms by inducing inflammation or constriction of the airways. Examples of asthmatic triggers include allergens, irritants, infections, exercise, stress, or weather changes. However, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not a priority action for a client who is in respiratory distress and needs more urgent interventions to improve breathing and oxygenation. Moreover, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers may not change the management or outcome of an acute asthma attack that has already occurred.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is correct because performing a bedside pregnancy test is the intervention that should be implemented immediately by the nurse. This is to confirm or rule out pregnancy and inform the surgical team of any possible risks or complications that may affect the client or the fetus.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because continuing with surgery as scheduled is not an appropriate intervention without verifying the pregnancy status of the client. Surgery may pose serious threats to both maternal and fetal health, such as bleeding, infection, anesthesia complications, or miscarriage.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because calculating gestation from last menstrual cycle is not an accurate or reliable method of determining pregnancy. The menstrual cycle can vary widely among women and may be affected by various factors such as stress, illness, or medication.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because notifying the surgical team to cancel the surgery is not a necessary intervention unless pregnancy is confirmed. Appendicitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt surgical treatment to prevent rupture, peritonitis, or sepsis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because performing a complete mental status exam is not a relevant or appropriate action for the nurse to implement. A mental status exam is used to evaluate the client's cognitive, emotional, and behavioral functioning, but it does not address the client's physical pain or its underlying cause.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because determining if the client has had a shingles vaccination is not a priority or helpful action for the nurse to implement. A shingles vaccination is recommended for people who are 50 years or older to prevent or reduce the severity of shingles, but it does not affect the occurrence or treatment of postherpetic neuralgia, which is a chronic pain condition that can develop after shingles.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because teaching the client about phantom pain symptoms is not an accurate or useful action for the nurse to implement. Phantom pain is a type of neuropathic pain that occurs when a person feels pain in a body part that has been amputated or removed. However, this is not the case for the client who has pain in the area where the shingles rash occurred.
Choice D reason: This is correct because completing an assessment of the client's pain is the most important action for the nurse to implement. Pain assessment involves collecting information about the location, intensity, quality, duration, frequency, and aggravating or relieving factors of the pain, as well as its impact on the client's daily activities and quality of life. This can help the nurse identify the cause and severity of the pain, as well as plan and evaluate appropriate interventions.
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