After initiating a steroid nebulizer treatment for a client with asthma in respiratory distress, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Monitor pulse oximetry every 2 hours.
Teach proper use of a rescue inhaler.
Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees.
Determine exposure to asthmatic triggers.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is not a sufficient or timely intervention for the nurse to implement. Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal oxygen saturation is 95% to 100%, while hypoxemia is less than 90%. However, pulse oximetry may not reflect the severity of respiratory distress or the effectiveness of nebulizer treatment in a client with asthma. Moreover, monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is too infrequent for a client who is in acute respiratory distress and needs more frequent assessment and intervention.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not a priority or relevant intervention for the nurse to implement. A rescue inhaler is a type of short-acting bronchodilator that can be used to relieve acute asthma symptoms by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways and improving airflow. However, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not an urgent action for a client who is already receiving nebulizer treatment, which delivers a higher dose of medication directly to the lungs. Moreover, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not appropriate for a client who is in respiratory distress and may not be able to focus or retain information.
Choice C reason: This is correct because elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees can help improve breathing and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and chest wall, increasing lung expansion and ventilation, and facilitating expectoration of mucus. This can enhance the effects of nebulizer treatment and reduce respiratory distress in a client with asthma.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not an immediate or helpful intervention for the nurse to implement. Asthmatic triggers are substances or factors that can cause or worsen asthma symptoms by inducing inflammation or constriction of the airways. Examples of asthmatic triggers include allergens, irritants, infections, exercise, stress, or weather changes. However, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not a priority action for a client who is in respiratory distress and needs more urgent interventions to improve breathing and oxygenation. Moreover, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers may not change the management or outcome of an acute asthma attack that has already occurred.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Weight gain of 2 pounds (0.91 kg) in one day is a sign of fluid retention, which occurs in SIADH due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb water and reduce urine output, leading to hyponatremia and hypervolemia.
Choice B reason: Fremitus over the chest wall is a sign of increased vibration or air movement in the lungs, which can indicate pneumonia, bronchitis, or pleural effusion. These are not related to SIADH, but may be complications of head injury or fluid overload.
Choice C reason: Serum sodium of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) is a sign of hypernatremia, which is a high level of sodium in the blood. This is the opposite of what happens in SIADH, where sodium levels are low due to dilution by excess water.
Choice D reason: Urine specific gravity of 1.004 is a sign of diluted urine, which indicates low concentration of solutes in the urine. This is also the opposite of what happens in SIADH, where urine is concentrated and has a high specific gravity.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a) The client's age: The client is 70 years old, which puts her at a higher risk of having a stroke or other cardiovascular problems. Stroke is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent brain damage and disability.
b) The client's facial droop: The client has a noticeable facial droop, which is a sign of facial nerve weakness or paralysis. This can be caused by a stroke, Bell's palsy, or other neurological conditions. Facial droop can affect the client's ability to speak, eat, and express emotions.
c) The client's garbled speech: The client has garbled speech, which means she has difficulty producing or understanding words. This can be caused by a stroke, brain injury, or other disorders that affect the language areas of the brain. Garbled speech can impair the client's communication and cognition.
d) The client's alcohol consumption: The client had a few drinks at a seafood restaurant, which may have interacted with her medications or medical conditions. Alcohol can increase the risk of bleeding, lower blood pressure, and worsen dehydration. Alcohol can also impair the client's judgment and coordination.
e) The client's seafood intake: The client ate seafood at a restaurant, which may have triggered an allergic reaction or food poisoning. Seafood allergies can cause symptoms such as hives, swelling, breathing difficulties, and anaphylaxis. Food poisoning can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.
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