After initiating a steroid nebulizer treatment for a client with asthma in respiratory distress, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Monitor pulse oximetry every 2 hours.
Teach proper use of a rescue inhaler.
Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees.
Determine exposure to asthmatic triggers.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is not a sufficient or timely intervention for the nurse to implement. Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal oxygen saturation is 95% to 100%, while hypoxemia is less than 90%. However, pulse oximetry may not reflect the severity of respiratory distress or the effectiveness of nebulizer treatment in a client with asthma. Moreover, monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is too infrequent for a client who is in acute respiratory distress and needs more frequent assessment and intervention.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not a priority or relevant intervention for the nurse to implement. A rescue inhaler is a type of short-acting bronchodilator that can be used to relieve acute asthma symptoms by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways and improving airflow. However, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not an urgent action for a client who is already receiving nebulizer treatment, which delivers a higher dose of medication directly to the lungs. Moreover, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not appropriate for a client who is in respiratory distress and may not be able to focus or retain information.
Choice C reason: This is correct because elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees can help improve breathing and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and chest wall, increasing lung expansion and ventilation, and facilitating expectoration of mucus. This can enhance the effects of nebulizer treatment and reduce respiratory distress in a client with asthma.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not an immediate or helpful intervention for the nurse to implement. Asthmatic triggers are substances or factors that can cause or worsen asthma symptoms by inducing inflammation or constriction of the airways. Examples of asthmatic triggers include allergens, irritants, infections, exercise, stress, or weather changes. However, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not a priority action for a client who is in respiratory distress and needs more urgent interventions to improve breathing and oxygenation. Moreover, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers may not change the management or outcome of an acute asthma attack that has already occurred.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Focused assesment area : Neurological
The correct answer is B. Speaks in short sentences.
Choice A: Drinks with repetitive cough. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has difficulty swallowing, which is a common complication of ischemic stroke. Swallowing problems can lead to aspiration pneumonia, dehydration, and malnutrition. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke¹.
Choice B: Speaks in short sentences. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient's speech has improved from being garbled to being intelligible. Speech impairment is a common symptom of ischemic stroke, especially when the left hemisphere of the brain is affected. Early intervention with thrombolytic therapy or mechanical thrombectomy can restore blood flow to the affected brain tissue and reduce the extent of damage². Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Choice C: Decorticate posturing. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has severe brain damage and is in a state of coma. Decorticate posturing is a type of abnormal posture that occurs when the upper limbs flex and the lower limbs extend in response to pain or stimulation. It indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres or the internal capsule³. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Focused assesment area : Muscoskeletal
The correct answer is B. Ambulates with a walker.
Choice A: Flaccidity of left arm. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has weakness or paralysis of the left arm, which is a common symptom of ischemic stroke. Flaccidity is the absence of muscle tone or resistance to passive movement. It indicates damage to the motor cortex or the corticospinal tract. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Choice B: Ambulates with a walker. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient has regained some mobility and independence after the ischemic stroke. Ambulation is the ability to walk or move from one place to another. Early intervention with physical therapy and rehabilitation can help improve the patient's functional recovery and prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis, pressure ulcers, and contractures. Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Choice C: Passive range of motion on left leg. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has limited or no voluntary movement of the left leg, which is another common symptom of ischemic stroke. Passive range of motion is the movement of a joint or limb by an external force, such as a therapist or a caregiver. It indicates damage to the motor cortex or the corticospinal tract. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Focused assesment area : Psychosocial
The correct answer is B. Tearful sharing of stories.
Choice A: Fits of laughter. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has inappropriate emotional responses, which is a common complication of ischemic stroke. Inappropriate emotional responses are sudden and uncontrollable episodes of laughing or crying that are out of context or disproportionate to the situation. They indicate damage to the brain regions that regulate emotions, such as the frontal lobe, the thalamus, or the brainstem. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Choice B: Tearful sharing of stories. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient has improved social and emotional functioning after the ischemic stroke. Tearful sharing of stories is a normal and healthy way of expressing emotions and coping with stress. It also shows that the patient has preserved memory and language skills, which are often impaired by ischemic stroke. Early intervention with psychological support and counseling can help the patient deal with the emotional impact of stroke and improve their quality of life. Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Choice C: Angry outburst. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has mood disturbances, which is another common complication of ischemic stroke. Mood disturbances are changes in the patient's emotional state, such as depression, anxiety, irritability, or aggression. They indicate damage to the brain regions that regulate mood, such as the frontal lobe, the amygdala, or the hippocampus. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a) The client's age: The client is 70 years old, which puts her at a higher risk of having a stroke or other cardiovascular problems. Stroke is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent brain damage and disability.
b) The client's facial droop: The client has a noticeable facial droop, which is a sign of facial nerve weakness or paralysis. This can be caused by a stroke, Bell's palsy, or other neurological conditions. Facial droop can affect the client's ability to speak, eat, and express emotions.
c) The client's garbled speech: The client has garbled speech, which means she has difficulty producing or understanding words. This can be caused by a stroke, brain injury, or other disorders that affect the language areas of the brain. Garbled speech can impair the client's communication and cognition.
d) The client's alcohol consumption: The client had a few drinks at a seafood restaurant, which may have interacted with her medications or medical conditions. Alcohol can increase the risk of bleeding, lower blood pressure, and worsen dehydration. Alcohol can also impair the client's judgment and coordination.
e) The client's seafood intake: The client ate seafood at a restaurant, which may have triggered an allergic reaction or food poisoning. Seafood allergies can cause symptoms such as hives, swelling, breathing difficulties, and anaphylaxis. Food poisoning can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.
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