On the third postoperative day, a client who has had a hip replacement surgery becomes anxious and diaphoretic, and begins to experience auditory hallucinations. The client denies having any pain. The client's vital signs are pulse rate 125 beats/minute, respiratory rate 36 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 166/88 mm Hg. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Present a calm, supportive demeanor.

Reorient to day and time frequently.

Administer an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam.

Turn the television on for distraction.

Apply soft wrist restraints bilaterally.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C

Choice A reason: Presenting a calm, supportive demeanor is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should use a soothing tone of voice, maintain eye contact, and avoid arguing or challenging the client's perceptions. This can help reduce the client's agitation and promote trust.

Choice B reason: Reorienting to day and time frequently is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should provide reality-based information and reminders about the client's situation, such as the reason for hospitalization, the name of the nurse, and the expected plan of care. This can help the client regain a sense of orientation and control.

Choice C reason: Administering an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can reduce anxiety, agitation, and psychotic symptoms by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, level of sedation, and risk of falls after giving the medication.

Choice D reason: Turning the television on for distraction is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The television can increase the sensory stimulation and confusion for the client, and may worsen the hallucinations or delusions. The nurse should provide a quiet and safe environment for the client.

Choice E reason: Applying soft wrist restraints bilaterally is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Restraints can increase the anxiety and agitation for the client, and may cause physical or psychological harm. The nurse should use restraints only as a last resort when other less restrictive measures have failed to protect the client or others from harm.

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Correct Answer is []

Explanation

Focused assesment area : Neurological

The correct answer is B. Speaks in short sentences.

Choice A: Drinks with repetitive cough. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has difficulty swallowing, which is a common complication of ischemic stroke. Swallowing problems can lead to aspiration pneumonia, dehydration, and malnutrition. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke¹.

Choice B: Speaks in short sentences. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient's speech has improved from being garbled to being intelligible. Speech impairment is a common symptom of ischemic stroke, especially when the left hemisphere of the brain is affected. Early intervention with thrombolytic therapy or mechanical thrombectomy can restore blood flow to the affected brain tissue and reduce the extent of damage². Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice C: Decorticate posturing. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has severe brain damage and is in a state of coma. Decorticate posturing is a type of abnormal posture that occurs when the upper limbs flex and the lower limbs extend in response to pain or stimulation. It indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres or the internal capsule³. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Focused assesment area : Muscoskeletal

The correct answer is B. Ambulates with a walker.

Choice A: Flaccidity of left arm. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has weakness or paralysis of the left arm, which is a common symptom of ischemic stroke. Flaccidity is the absence of muscle tone or resistance to passive movement. It indicates damage to the motor cortex or the corticospinal tract. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice B: Ambulates with a walker. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient has regained some mobility and independence after the ischemic stroke. Ambulation is the ability to walk or move from one place to another. Early intervention with physical therapy and rehabilitation can help improve the patient's functional recovery and prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis, pressure ulcers, and contractures. Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice C: Passive range of motion on left leg. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has limited or no voluntary movement of the left leg, which is another common symptom of ischemic stroke. Passive range of motion is the movement of a joint or limb by an external force, such as a therapist or a caregiver. It indicates damage to the motor cortex or the corticospinal tract. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Focused assesment area : Psychosocial

The correct answer is B. Tearful sharing of stories.

Choice A: Fits of laughter. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has inappropriate emotional responses, which is a common complication of ischemic stroke. Inappropriate emotional responses are sudden and uncontrollable episodes of laughing or crying that are out of context or disproportionate to the situation. They indicate damage to the brain regions that regulate emotions, such as the frontal lobe, the thalamus, or the brainstem. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice B: Tearful sharing of stories. This is a correct answer because it indicates that the patient has improved social and emotional functioning after the ischemic stroke. Tearful sharing of stories is a normal and healthy way of expressing emotions and coping with stress. It also shows that the patient has preserved memory and language skills, which are often impaired by ischemic stroke. Early intervention with psychological support and counseling can help the patient deal with the emotional impact of stroke and improve their quality of life. Therefore, this finding indicates effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

Choice C: Angry outburst. This is an incorrect answer because it indicates that the patient has mood disturbances, which is another common complication of ischemic stroke. Mood disturbances are changes in the patient's emotional state, such as depression, anxiety, irritability, or aggression. They indicate damage to the brain regions that regulate mood, such as the frontal lobe, the amygdala, or the hippocampus. Therefore, this finding does not indicate effective early intervention for ischemic stroke.

A. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result. B. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages. C. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms. D. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: The humoral immune response is mediated by B cells that produce antibodies against specific antigens. However, this response is not the main problem in AIDS, because B cells are not directly affected by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes AIDS. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.

Choice B reason: The cellular immune response is mediated by T lymphocytes that activate other immune cells, such as macrophages, to destroy infected or abnormal cells. This response is the main problem in AIDS, because HIV infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, which are essential for coordinating the cellular immunity. As a result, the client becomes susceptible to opportunistic infections, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Therefore, this choice is correct.

Choice C reason: Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells can cause immunodeficiency, but it is not the primary cause of AIDS. Bone marrow suppression can occur as a side effect of some drugs or treatments, such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy, but it is not directly caused by HIV. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.

Choice D reason: Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents can challenge the immune system, but it does not necessarily cause it to fail. The immune system can adapt and respond to different pathogens, unless it is compromised by an underlying condition, such as AIDS. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Patient Data Exhibits Specify which findings indicate early interventions for an ischemic stroke were effective? Each focused assessment area may support more than one clinical finding.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Exhibits For each assessment finding, explain whether the actions taken were effective or ineffective.

A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

Two weeks after returning home from traveling, a client presents to the clinic with conjunctivitis and describes a recent loss in the ability to taste and smell. The nurse obtains a nasal swab to test for COVID-19. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

A client with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) calls the clinic to report difficulty wearing the continuous positive air pressure (CPAP) mask because it is uncomfortable. The client asks the nurse for an alternative way to manage sleep apnea. Which recommendation should the nurse provide?

Patient Data Exhibits Drag from the choices area to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.

The nurse is caring for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. Which is the best initial nursing action?