A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/mm³ (20%). The client asks the nurse why they have these recurring massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to this client's question?
Reference Range:
T-helper CD4 cells [600 to 1500 cells/mm³ (60 to 75%)]
The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the humoral immune response involves B cells that produce antibodies against specific antigens. However, AIDS affects the cellular immune response, which involves T cells that activate other immune cells and directly kill infected cells.
Choice B reason: This is correct because AIDS is caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells. These cells are essential for initiating and regulating both humoral and cellular immunity. Without enough CD4+ T cells, the body cannot mount an effective response against pathogens, especially opportunistic infections that take advantage of a weakened immune system.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because bone marrow suppression of white blood cells is not a direct consequence of AIDS. However, some drugs used to treat AIDS, such as zidovudine, may cause bone marrow suppression as a side effect.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents does not cause AIDS. However, people with AIDS are more susceptible to infections from various sources due to their impaired immune system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because reviewing the need for pneumococcal vaccine is not the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for people who are at high risk of pneumococcal infections, such as those with chronic diseases or immunosuppression. However, it is not a priority action for a client with neutropenia, which is a low number of neutrophils that increases the risk of bacterial and fungal infections.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because implementing bleeding precautions is not the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Bleeding precautions are indicated for clients who have thrombocytopenia, which is a low number of platelets that impairs blood clotting. However, this is not the case for a client with neutropenia, which affects the white blood cells that fight infections.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because assessing vital signs every 4 hours is not the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Vital signs are important indicators of the client's health status and may reveal signs of infection, such as fever, tachycardia, or hypotension. However, this is not a sufficient measure to prevent or treat infections in a client with neutropenia, who needs more aggressive and proactive interventions.
Choice D reason: This is correct because placing the client in protective isolation is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Protective isolation, also known as reverse isolation or neutropenic precautions, is a set of measures that aim to protect the client from exposure to pathogens that may cause infections. These include wearing gloves, masks, gowns, and eye protection; using sterile equipment and techniques; avoiding contact with people who are sick or have infections; and restricting visitors and fresh flowers or fruits.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
Choice A reason: Place the client in a room near the elevator: This does **not** promote client safety, because it exposes the client to more noise and disturbance, which can increase stress and blood pressure. A quiet and calm environment is preferable for stroke clients.
Choice B reason: Complete a swallow study before giving anything by mouth: This **promotes** client safety, because it assesses the client's ability to swallow and prevent aspiration. Stroke clients may have impaired swallowing due to facial weakness or sensory loss.
Choice C reason: Provide a call button kept within reach: This **promotes** client safety, because it allows the client to communicate their needs and request assistance when needed. Stroke clients may have limited mobility or vision, which can increase their risk of falls or injuries.
Choice D reason: Initiate use of the bed alarm: This **promotes** client safety, because it alerts the staff if the client tries to get out of bed without assistance. Stroke clients may have impaired judgment or balance, which can lead to falls or accidents.
Choice E reason: Place client belongings out of reach: This does **not** promote client safety, because it makes the client feel frustrated and helpless. Stroke clients may have difficulty reaching for their belongings due to hemiparesis or hemiplegia, which can affect their self-care and independence. The nurse should place the client's belongings within reach on their unaffected side and encourage them to use them as much as possible.
Choice F reason: Instruct the client to call before getting up: This **promotes** client safety, because it ensures that the client has adequate support and supervision when getting up. Stroke clients may have orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness or fainting when changing positions. The nurse should assist the client to get up slowly and monitor their vital signs.
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