A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/mm³ (20%). The client asks the nurse why they have these recurring massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to this client's question?

Reference Range:
T-helper CD4 cells [600 to 1500 cells/mm³ (60 to 75%)]

The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.

Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.

Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the humoral immune response involves B cells that produce antibodies against specific antigens. However, AIDS affects the cellular immune response, which involves T cells that activate other immune cells and directly kill infected cells.

Choice B reason: This is correct because AIDS is caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells. These cells are essential for initiating and regulating both humoral and cellular immunity. Without enough CD4+ T cells, the body cannot mount an effective response against pathogens, especially opportunistic infections that take advantage of a weakened immune system.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because bone marrow suppression of white blood cells is not a direct consequence of AIDS. However, some drugs used to treat AIDS, such as zidovudine, may cause bone marrow suppression as a side effect.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents does not cause AIDS. However, people with AIDS are more susceptible to infections from various sources due to their impaired immune system.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Rocky Mountain spotted fever is not the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks that causes a distinctive rash that usually begins on the wrists and ankles and spreads to the rest of the body. The rash is not limited to the arms and legs, and the client may also have other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and muscle aches.

Choice B reason: Intracerebral hemorrhage is not the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. Intracerebral hemorrhage is a type of stroke that occurs when a blood vessel bursts inside the brain, causing bleeding and swelling. The rash is not a typical sign of intracerebral hemorrhage, and the client may also have other symptoms such as weakness, numbness, vision loss, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

Choice C reason: Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is not the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. CVA is another term for stroke, which occurs when the blood supply to a part of the brain is interrupted, causing brain tissue damage. The rash is not a common sign of CVA, and the client may also have other symptoms such as facial drooping, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, paralysis, and cognitive impairment.

Choice D reason: Meningococcal meningitis is the most likely condition for the client who has a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. Meningococcal meningitis is a bacterial infection that causes inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord. The rash is a characteristic sign of meningococcal meningitis, which can appear as small red or purple spots that do not fade when pressed. The client may also have other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, confusion, and seizures.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

The client is most likely experiencing compartment syndrome, which is a condition where increased pressure within a closed space compromises blood flow and tissue perfusion. Compartment syndrome can occur after a fracture, especially if a cast or splint is applied too tightly. Some of the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome are severe pain, paresthesia, pallor, and pulselessness.
Two actions the nurse should take to address compartment syndrome are:
- Elevate the extremity above the level of the heart to reduce swelling and improve venous return.
- Remove the cast or loosen the dressing to relieve the pressure and restore blood flow. This may require notifying the physician or obtaining an order for bivalving or cutting the cast.
Two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s condition are:
- Capillary refill of the affected fingers, which should be less than 3 seconds. A prolonged capillary refill indicates poor perfusion and tissue ischemia.
- Blood pressure of the client, which should be maintained within normal limits. Hypotension can worsen the perfusion deficit and lead to tissue necrosis.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Exhibits Specify which potential condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s response.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

A patient experiences residual effects following an acute attack of Ménière's disease and receives a new prescription for an antihistamine. Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

A client has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 500/mm³ (0.5 x 10⁹/L) after completing chemotherapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Reference Range: Neutrophils (ANC) [2500 to 5800/mm³ (2.5 to 5.8 x 10⁹/L)]

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Patient Data Exhibits Drag from the choices area to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.

An older adult client with symptoms of osteoarthritis asks the nurse which form of exercise would be most beneficial. Which is the best response by the nurse?

After initiating a steroid nebulizer treatment for a client with asthma in respiratory distress, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

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A client with a closed head injury demonstrates signs of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which additional finding should the nurse expect to obtain?