A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/mm³ (20%). The client asks the nurse why they have these recurring massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to this client's question?

Reference Range:
T-helper CD4 cells [600 to 1500 cells/mm³ (60 to 75%)]

The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.

Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.

Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the humoral immune response involves B cells that produce antibodies against specific antigens. However, AIDS affects the cellular immune response, which involves T cells that activate other immune cells and directly kill infected cells.

Choice B reason: This is correct because AIDS is caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells. These cells are essential for initiating and regulating both humoral and cellular immunity. Without enough CD4+ T cells, the body cannot mount an effective response against pathogens, especially opportunistic infections that take advantage of a weakened immune system.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because bone marrow suppression of white blood cells is not a direct consequence of AIDS. However, some drugs used to treat AIDS, such as zidovudine, may cause bone marrow suppression as a side effect.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents does not cause AIDS. However, people with AIDS are more susceptible to infections from various sources due to their impaired immune system.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Weight gain of 2 pounds (0.91 kg) in one day is a sign of fluid retention, which occurs in SIADH due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb water and reduce urine output, leading to hyponatremia and hypervolemia.

Choice B reason: Fremitus over the chest wall is a sign of increased vibration or air movement in the lungs, which can indicate pneumonia, bronchitis, or pleural effusion. These are not related to SIADH, but may be complications of head injury or fluid overload.

Choice C reason: Serum sodium of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) is a sign of hypernatremia, which is a high level of sodium in the blood. This is the opposite of what happens in SIADH, where sodium levels are low due to dilution by excess water.

Choice D reason: Urine specific gravity of 1.004 is a sign of diluted urine, which indicates low concentration of solutes in the urine. This is also the opposite of what happens in SIADH, where urine is concentrated and has a high specific gravity.

A. Basic metabolic panel B. Echocardiogram C. CT scan of abdomen D. Blood cultures times 2 sets E. Chest X-ray F. Place on continuous cardiac monitor G. CBC H. 12 lead EKG

Correct Answer is ["F","H"]

Explanation

a) Basic metabolic panel: This is a blood test that measures the levels of electrolytes, glucose, calcium, and kidney function. It is not a priority order for this client because her glucose level is within the normal range and her symptoms are not indicative of electrolyte imbalance or kidney failure.

b) Echocardiogram: This is a test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart and its valves, chambers, and blood flow. It is not a priority order for this client because her chest discomfort may not be related to a cardiac problem and her SpO2 is normal, indicating adequate oxygenation.

c) CT scan of abdomen: This is a test that uses X-rays to create detailed pictures of the organs and structures in the abdomen. It is not a priority order for this client because her abdominal pain is not severe or acute and her nausea and poor appetite may be due to her illness or dialysis.

d) Blood cultures times 2 sets: This is a test that checks for the presence of bacteria or fungi in the blood. It is not a priority order for this client because she does not have signs of infection such as fever, chills, or leukocytosis.

e) Chest X-ray: This is a test that uses X-rays to create images of the lungs and chest wall. It is not a priority order for this client because she does not have respiratory symptoms such as cough, shortness of breath, or wheezes.

f) Place on continuous cardiac monitor: This is an order that requires the nurse to attach electrodes to the client's chest and monitor the heart rate and rhythm continuously. This is a priority order for this client because she has a history of CAD and HTN and reports chest discomfort and lightheadedness, which could indicate a possible myocardial infarction (heart attack) or arrhythmia (irregular heartbeat).

g) CBC: This is a blood test that measures the number and types of blood cells, such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It is not a priority order for this client because she does not have signs of anemia, bleeding, or infection.

h) 12 lead EKG: This is a test that records the electrical activity of the heart from 12 different angles. It can detect abnormalities in the heart's rhythm, conduction, or damage. This is a priority order for this client because she has a history of CAD and HTN and reports chest discomfort and lightheadedness, which could indicate a possible myocardial infarction (heart attack) or arrhythmia (irregular heartbeat).

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with a closed head injury demonstrates signs of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which additional finding should the nurse expect to obtain?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Exhibits The nurse is reviewing the physician orders. Which of the following physician’s orders requires priority attention from the nurse? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["F","H"]

Explanation

A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an upper respiratory infection. Which changes in blood glucose management should the client expect?

A client with acute renal injury (AKI) weighs 110.3 pounds (50 kg) and has a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first? Reference Range: Potassium [3.5 to 5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mmol/L)]

Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

A client asks the nurse for information about how to reduce risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information should the nurse provide?

Exhibits For each assessment finding, explain whether the actions taken were effective or ineffective.

The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which finding(s) should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply.)

While completing a health assessment for a young adult female with acute appendicitis, the client informs the nurse that there is a chance that she may be pregnant. The operating team is preparing to take the client to surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?