A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/mm³ (20%). The client asks the nurse why they have these recurring massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to this client's question?
Reference Range:
T-helper CD4 cells [600 to 1500 cells/mm³ (60 to 75%)]
The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the humoral immune response involves B cells that produce antibodies against specific antigens. However, AIDS affects the cellular immune response, which involves T cells that activate other immune cells and directly kill infected cells.
Choice B reason: This is correct because AIDS is caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells. These cells are essential for initiating and regulating both humoral and cellular immunity. Without enough CD4+ T cells, the body cannot mount an effective response against pathogens, especially opportunistic infections that take advantage of a weakened immune system.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because bone marrow suppression of white blood cells is not a direct consequence of AIDS. However, some drugs used to treat AIDS, such as zidovudine, may cause bone marrow suppression as a side effect.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents does not cause AIDS. However, people with AIDS are more susceptible to infections from various sources due to their impaired immune system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Presenting a calm, supportive demeanor is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should use a soothing tone of voice, maintain eye contact, and avoid arguing or challenging the client's perceptions. This can help reduce the client's agitation and promote trust.
Choice B reason: Reorienting to day and time frequently is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The nurse should provide reality-based information and reminders about the client's situation, such as the reason for hospitalization, the name of the nurse, and the expected plan of care. This can help the client regain a sense of orientation and control.
Choice C reason: Administering an as needed (PRN) dose of lorazepam is an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can reduce anxiety, agitation, and psychotic symptoms by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, level of sedation, and risk of falls after giving the medication.
Choice D reason: Turning the television on for distraction is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. The television can increase the sensory stimulation and confusion for the client, and may worsen the hallucinations or delusions. The nurse should provide a quiet and safe environment for the client.
Choice E reason: Applying soft wrist restraints bilaterally is not an appropriate intervention for a client who is experiencing anxiety and hallucinations. Restraints can increase the anxiety and agitation for the client, and may cause physical or psychological harm. The nurse should use restraints only as a last resort when other less restrictive measures have failed to protect the client or others from harm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication that binds to excess potassium in the gastrointestinal tract and removes it from the body through feces. It is used to treat hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness, and it is a common complication of AKI. Therefore, this medication should be administered first to lower the potassium level and prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice B reason: Sevelamer is a medication that binds to phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract and removes it from the body through feces. It is used to treat hyperphosphatemia, which is a high level of phosphorus in the blood. Hyperphosphatemia can cause bone loss and soft tissue calcification, and it is a common complication of chronic kidney disease (CKD). However, it is not an urgent issue in AKI, and it does not affect the potassium level.
Choice C reason: Calcium acetate is a medication that also binds to phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract and removes it from the body through feces. It has the same effect and indication as sevelamer, but it also provides calcium supplementation. However, it is not an urgent issue in AKI, and it does not affect the potassium level.
Choice D reason: Epoetin alfa, recombinant is a medication that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. It is used to treat anemia, which is a low level of hemoglobin or red blood cells in the blood. Anemia can cause fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath, and it is a common complication of CKD and AKI. However, it is not an urgent issue in AKI, and it does not affect the potassium level.
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