The palliative care nurse is admitting a client who has metastatic bone cancer and is unable to eat or drink without immediate nausea and vomiting. The client is complaining of pain at 9 on a 0 to 10 pain scale, and the vital signs are: heart rate 99 beats/minute, respirations 38 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 95%, and blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg. Which Intervention should the nurse implement?

Initiate infusion for an IV fluid bolus.

Administer an IV antiemetic.

Medicate with PRN IV narcotic.

Discourage straining on stool.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   While hydration is important, it's not the most immediate concern when the client is experiencing severe pain and nausea. Addressing the pain should be the priority.
B.   Antiemetics can be helpful for managing nausea and vomiting, but they may not be as effective in addressing the severe pain.
C.   The client's self-reported pain level of 9 on a 0 to 10 scale indicates severe pain, which requires immediate management. IV narcotics are effective for managing severe pain and can be administered quickly to provide immediate relief. Addressing the client's pain can also help to alleviate nausea and vomiting, as pain can exacerbate these symptoms.
D.   This is not relevant to the client's current symptoms of severe pain and nausea.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While it’s important to understand how the coffee ended up on the tray, determining which staff member made the mistake does not address the immediate issue of ensuring the client’s diet is appropriate. The priority should be to correct the dietary error and ensure that the client receives only what is appropriate for their diet.
B. Consulting with a dietician could provide clarity on dietary restrictions and allowances. However, if the client is on a clear liquid diet, coffee is typically not included because it may have additives (like milk or creamer) or may not be considered suitable for the clear liquid diet.
C. Coffee, unless specified as permissible, generally does not meet the criteria for a clear liquid diet due to its potential to be mixed with non-clear substances and its stimulant properties. Removing the coffee and informing the client of the dietary restriction ensures that the client adheres to the prescribed diet and avoids potential complications or issues with their treatment.
D. This action is not suitable for a clear liquid diet. Coffee itself is typically not allowed on a clear liquid diet, regardless of whether milk or creamer is added. This choice does not address the fundamental issue of the coffee being inappropriate for the client’s diet.

A. Add the second portion of the feeding before the syringe is completely empty. B. Use 25 mL of water between the two portions of the feeding to flush the GT. C. Raise the syringe barrel higher to increase the flow rate of the bolus feeding. D. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water between the two portions of the feeding.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This instruction is not recommended because adding the second portion of the feeding before the syringe is empty can lead to inconsistent feeding rates and potential complications, such as overloading the stomach with too much formula at once.
B. Flushing the GT with water between portions of feeding is a good practice to prevent clogging and to ensure that all formula is delivered. However, 25 mL of water is generally not enough; standard practice typically involves using 30 to 60 mL of water for effective flushing. This option is close but not as specific as the recommended volume.
C. Raising the syringe barrel can increase the flow rate of the feeding, but this approach should be used with caution. Rapid flow can cause gastrointestinal discomfort or cramping. The primary focus should be on ensuring proper flushing and administration rather than manipulating the flow rate in this way.
D. This option is the best practice because flushing the GT with 50 mL of water between portions of the feeding helps to clear any remaining formula from the tube and prevents clogging. Proper flushing also helps ensure that the entire dose of formula is delivered and maintains tube patency.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse observes that a client on a clear liquid diet has a cup of coffee on the breakfast tray. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is teaching another nurse about the administration of medication using the Z track technique. Which is the primary reason for using a Z track technique to administer a medication?

A surgical incision that is healing by secondary intention develops a thick tan exudate. Which action should the nurse take first?

A client who has a continuous tube feeding develops a fever and reports experiencing dyspnea. Which action should the nurse implement?

An older female resident of a long-term care facility is experiencing frequent episodes of urinary incontinence. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement with this client?

Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?

An older client is hospitalized following an embolic stroke resulting in right-sided paresis. Three days after admission, the nurse notes edema and erythema to the right lower leg. These findings should alert the nurse to which possible condition?

An older adult client's skin feels warm and the client has a temperature of 101.2° F (38.4° C). The nurse further assesses that the client has a reddened tongue, dry mucous membranes, and inelastic skin turgor. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?

The nurse assesses an older adult client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs). When observing the client ambulate, the nurse notes that the client's posture is upright, and the gait is smooth and steady. Which action should the nurse take next?