A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to receive intravenous oxytocin for the induction of labor. The client has a Bishop score of 8 which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
The client will require a vacuum- or forceps-assisted delivery.
The client will experience a successful induction of labour
The client will experience lower back pain during labor.
The client will require dinoprostone for ripening of the cervix.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B. The client will experience a successful induction of labor.
A. The Bishop score is a pre-induction assessment that evaluates several factors, including cervical dilation, effacement, consistency, position, and fetal station. It is used to predict the likelihood of a successful induction of labor. A high Bishop score indicates favorable conditions for induction.
B. Correct. A higher Bishop score indicates a more favorable cervix for induction, and the chances of a successful induction of labor are increased.
C. Lower back pain during labor is not specifically associated with the Bishop score. It can be a common complaint during labor, but it is not predicted by the Bishop score.
D. Dinoprostone is a prostaglandin used for cervical ripening. If the Bishop score indicates an unfavorable cervix, dinoprostone or other cervical ripening agents may be considered to prepare the cervix for induction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Shoulder presentation is not typically described using the terms RSA. Shoulder presentation would be noted differently, and it is uncommon.
B. Breech presentation involves the presentation of the fetus with the buttocks or feet first. RSA indicates the specific position of the sacrum in relation to the mother's right side.
C. Vertex presentation refers to the head-first position, and it is not described using the terms RSA.
D. Mentum presentation is not a standard term used to describe fetal presentation. Mentum typically refers to the chin, and fetal presentations are commonly described in terms of the presenting part (e.g., vertex, breech).
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Reassess the client in 2 hours is inappropriate. While reassessment is important, addressing the cause of uterine displacement, in this case, a full bladder, should be the initial priority.
Choice B Reason:
Administering simethicone is inappropriate. Simethicone is typically used to relieve gas and bloating. It is not the primary intervention for uterine displacement related to bladder fullness.
Choice C Reason:
Assisting the client to empty her bladder is appropriate. A full bladder can displace the uterus and hinder its contraction, leading to potential issues such as uterine atony or increased postpartum bleeding. Emptying the bladder helps the uterus contract more effectively.
Choice D Reason:
Instructing the client to lie on her right side is inappropriate. Lying on the right side is often recommended to improve blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus during pregnancy but may not directly address uterine displacement caused by a full bladder. The priority is to assist the client in emptying her bladder.
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