A client with a history of seizures is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which instruction does the nurse give the client before the test?
You may bring some music to listen to for distraction.
Do not take any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test.
You will need to have someone to drive you home.
Please do not have anything to eat or drink after midnight.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: You May Bring Some Music to Listen to for Distraction
Bringing music for distraction is generally not a standard instruction given before an EEG. While listening to music might help some patients relax, it is not a critical part of the preparation for the test. The primary focus of EEG preparation is to ensure accurate readings of brain activity, which can be influenced by various factors such as medication and sleep.
Choice B: Do Not Take Any Sedatives 12 to 24 Hours Before the Test
Avoiding sedatives before an EEG is crucial because these medications can alter brain activity and affect the test results. Sedatives can suppress the electrical activity in the brain, leading to inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is essential for patients to avoid taking any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test to ensure the EEG captures the brain’s natural activity.
Choice C: You Will Need to Have Someone to Drive You Home
This instruction is typically given if the patient is expected to be sedated or if the test involves procedures that might impair their ability to drive. However, for a standard EEG, patients are usually not sedated, and there is no need for someone to drive them home. This instruction is more relevant for other types of medical procedures that involve sedation.
Choice D: Please Do Not Have Anything to Eat or Drink After Midnight
Fasting is not a standard requirement for an EEG. Patients are generally allowed to eat and drink before the test. However, they are often advised to avoid caffeine as it can affect brain activity. The instruction to avoid food and drink after midnight is more commonly associated with procedures that require anesthesia or sedation, not an EEG.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Continuing to monitor is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The patient has a regular heart rhythm and a heart rate of 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia. The PR interval is 0.20 seconds, which is at the upper limit of normal. The patient’s vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 118/68 mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.8°F (37°C). There are no signs of hemodynamic instability or symptoms that would necessitate immediate intervention. Therefore, ongoing monitoring is sufficient to ensure the patient’s condition remains stable.
Choice B Reason:
Administering clonidine is not appropriate in this situation. Clonidine is an antihypertensive medication that can lower blood pressure and heart rate. Given that the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate are within normal ranges, administering clonidine could potentially cause hypotension and bradycardia, leading to adverse effects. Therefore, clonidine is not indicated for this patient.
Choice C Reason:
Administering atropine is not necessary for this patient. Atropine is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the heart rate is abnormally slow and causing symptoms such as dizziness, hypotension, or syncope. In this case, the patient’s heart rate is 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia, and there are no symptoms indicating the need for atropine. Therefore, atropine is not required.
Choice D Reason:
Administering digoxin is also not appropriate. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and certain types of arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation. It can slow the heart rate and increase the force of cardiac contractions. In this scenario, the patient does not have any indications for digoxin therapy, such as heart failure or atrial fibrillation, and their heart rate is already within the normal range. Therefore, digoxin is not indicated.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Elevating the head of the client’s bed can help reduce blood pressure slightly by promoting venous return and decreasing intracranial pressure. However, this action alone is not sufficient to address the severe hypertension (254/139 mm Hg) the client is experiencing. Immediate medical intervention is required to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage.
Choice B reason:
Contacting the Rapid Response Team is the highest priority action. The Rapid Response Team is trained to handle critical situations and can provide immediate interventions to stabilize the client’s condition. Severe hypertension at this level requires urgent medical attention to prevent life-threatening complications. The team can administer medications to lower blood pressure quickly and monitor the client closely.
Choice C reason:
Telling the client to report vision changes is important because vision changes can indicate hypertensive retinopathy or increased intracranial pressure. However, this action is not the immediate priority. The client’s blood pressure needs to be controlled urgently to prevent further complications.
Choice D reason:
Inserting a peripheral IV is necessary for administering medications and fluids. While this is an important step, it should follow the immediate action of contacting the Rapid Response Team. The team can then use the IV access to administer antihypertensive medications promptly.
Choice E reason:
Initiating seizure precautions is important because severe hypertension can lead to seizures. However, this action is not the first priority. The primary focus should be on stabilizing the client’s blood pressure through immediate medical intervention.
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