A client with a history of seizures is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which instruction does the nurse give the client before the test?
You may bring some music to listen to for distraction.
Do not take any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test.
You will need to have someone to drive you home.
Please do not have anything to eat or drink after midnight.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: You May Bring Some Music to Listen to for Distraction
Bringing music for distraction is generally not a standard instruction given before an EEG. While listening to music might help some patients relax, it is not a critical part of the preparation for the test. The primary focus of EEG preparation is to ensure accurate readings of brain activity, which can be influenced by various factors such as medication and sleep.
Choice B: Do Not Take Any Sedatives 12 to 24 Hours Before the Test
Avoiding sedatives before an EEG is crucial because these medications can alter brain activity and affect the test results. Sedatives can suppress the electrical activity in the brain, leading to inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is essential for patients to avoid taking any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test to ensure the EEG captures the brain’s natural activity.
Choice C: You Will Need to Have Someone to Drive You Home
This instruction is typically given if the patient is expected to be sedated or if the test involves procedures that might impair their ability to drive. However, for a standard EEG, patients are usually not sedated, and there is no need for someone to drive them home. This instruction is more relevant for other types of medical procedures that involve sedation.
Choice D: Please Do Not Have Anything to Eat or Drink After Midnight
Fasting is not a standard requirement for an EEG. Patients are generally allowed to eat and drink before the test. However, they are often advised to avoid caffeine as it can affect brain activity. The instruction to avoid food and drink after midnight is more commonly associated with procedures that require anesthesia or sedation, not an EEG.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","G"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Breath sounds diminished on auscultation indicate that there may still be fluid or air in the pleural space, suggesting that the chest tube is still needed to drain the pleural cavity. This is not an appropriate reason to discontinue a chest tube as it indicates ongoing issues that need to be resolved.
Choice B Reason:
Improved respiratory status is a key indicator that the chest tube has successfully resolved the underlying issue, such as a pneumothorax or pleural effusion. When the patient shows signs of stable and improved breathing, it suggests that the chest tube has served its purpose and can be safely removed.
Choice C Reason:
Symmetrical rise and fall of the chest during respiration indicate that both lungs are expanding and contracting normally. This symmetry is a sign that the pleural space is no longer compromised, making it an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice D Reason:
Oxygen saturation at least 90% is a general indicator of adequate oxygenation but does not specifically address the condition of the pleural space. While important, it is not a direct reason to discontinue a chest tube without other supporting signs.
Choice E Reason:
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an ongoing air leak, which means that the chest tube is still necessary to evacuate air from the pleural space. This is not an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice F Reason:
An asymmetrical chest on inspiration and expiration suggests that there is still an issue with lung expansion, possibly due to fluid or air in the pleural space. This condition requires the chest tube to remain in place until resolved.
Choice G Reason:
Bilateral breath sounds clear on auscultation indicate that both lungs are free of fluid and air, and are functioning normally. This is a strong indicator that the chest tube has achieved its purpose and can be safely removed.
Correct Answer is ["31"]
Explanation
Step 1: Calculate the total infusion time in minutes.
8 hours × 60 minutes/hour = 480 minutes
Result at each step = 480 minutes
Step 2: Calculate the total number of drops to be infused.
1,000 mL × 15 drops/mL = 15,000 drops
Result at each step = 15,000 drops
Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate in drops per minute.
15,000 drops ÷ 480 minutes = 31.25 drops/minute
Result at each step = 31.25 drops/minute
Step 4: Round to the nearest whole number if necessary.
31.25 drops/minute rounds to 31 drops/minute
Result at each step = 31 drops/minute
Therefore, the nurse should run the IV infusion at a rate of 31 drops per minute.
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