“A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for Group B Streptococcus (GBS). The patient is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS.

She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?”

“There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing.”.

“Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS.”.

“You didn’t report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy.”.

“GBS testing is typically done between 35-37 weeks of gestation.”. .

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale
While it’s true that there may not have been any indication of GBS in earlier prenatal testing, this does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier. GBS can come and go in the body, so a negative test earlier in pregnancy does not guarantee that the woman will still be GBS-negative later in pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Even if previous deliveries were all negative for GBS, this does not mean that the woman will not have GBS in this pregnancy. GBS can come and go in the body, so each pregnancy is considered separately.
Choice C rationale
GBS is usually asymptomatic in adults, so the woman would not typically report any symptoms of GBS during her pregnancy. This does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier.
Choice D rationale
GBS testing is typically done between 35-37 weeks of gestation. This is because GBS can come and go in the body, so testing during this time frame gives the best prediction of whether or not the woman will have GBS at the time of delivery.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
A score of 9 on the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Screen (EPDS) on postpartum day 2 is below the clinical cutoff score of 10, which is used to distinguish health controls versus possible depression. Therefore, this score would not indicate a high risk of developing a depressive disorder.
Choice B rationale
A score of 11 on the EPDS on postpartum day 30 is above the clinical cutoff score of 1034. This score indicates a high risk of developing a depressive disorder. Therefore, further assessment and possible intervention would be necessary.
Choice C rationale
While discharge teaching is an important aspect of postpartum care, it does not provide information about the client’s risk of developing postpartum depression. Therefore, this choice does not answer the question.
Choice D rationale
A follow-up appointment with a provider in 4 weeks is a standard part of postpartum care, but it does not provide information about the client’s risk of developing postpartum depression.
Therefore, this choice does not answer the question.

A. Jitteriness B. Increased muscle tone C. Abdominal distention D. Petechiae .

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in newborns. Newborns whose mothers had gestational diabetes are at an increased risk of developing hypoglycemia shortly after birth. Other signs of neonatal hypoglycemia can include poor feeding, lethargy, and seizures.
Choice B rationale
Increased muscle tone is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. However, decreased muscle tone can be a sign of severe hypoglycemia.
Choice C rationale
Abdominal distention is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. However, it can be a sign of other conditions, such as gastrointestinal obstruction or sepsis.
Choice D rationale
Petechiae, or small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding into the skin, are not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. However, they can be a sign of other conditions, such as infection or a bleeding disorder.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client during a follow-up visit. What was the client’s score on the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Screen?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes mellitus. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

“A nurse is obtaining a 2-hr postprandial blood glucose from a patient. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?”

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 2 days postpartum and wants to continue using her diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is preparing to administer metronidazole 2 g PO to a client who has trichomoniasis. Available is metronidazole 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) .

A nurse is caring for a client who delivered by cesarean birth 6 hours ago. The nurse notes a steady trickle of vaginal bleeding that does not stop with fundal massage. Which action should the nurse take?

A nurse is teaching about home safety with a client who is 2 days postpartum. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is providing care to a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a potential adverse effect of the medication?

A nurse is providing information about newborn security to the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 hour postpartum and has peripartum cardiomyopathy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?