In preparation for a client having a Schilling test the nurse should explain that the test:

will confirm a diagnosis of G6PD anemia

is a 24-hour urine specimen collection test!

involves limiting intake of animal proteins

entails administration of methylcellulose prior to the test

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "will confirm a diagnosis of G6PD anemia": This statement is incorrect. The Schilling test is specifically used to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption and diagnose conditions like pernicious anemia, not G6PD deficiency.

B. "is a 24-hour urine specimen collection test": This statement is accurate. The Schilling test typically involves collecting a 24-hour urine specimen to measure the amount of radioactively labeled vitamin B12 excreted in the urine, which helps determine if the body is absorbing vitamin B12 properly.

C. "involves limiting intake of animal proteins": This statement is misleading. While dietary restrictions may be necessary for certain tests, the Schilling test primarily focuses on the absorption of vitamin B12 and does not require limiting animal protein intake.

D. "entails administration of methylcellulose prior to the test": This statement is incorrect. Methylcellulose is not involved in the Schilling test. The test typically includes administration of oral vitamin B12 with or without intrinsic factor to evaluate absorption.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Decrease allergic reactions: Nitrate-free periods are not primarily designed to address allergic reactions.

B. Decrease tolerance to effects: Nitrates, including isosorbide mononitrate, can lead to the development of tolerance when used continuously. The nitrate-free period helps to minimize this tolerance, allowing the medication to remain effective over time.

C. Prevent reflex tachycardia: While nitrate use can sometimes cause reflex tachycardia, the nitrate-free interval is not specifically aimed at preventing this.

D. Increase absorption: The nitrate-free period does not influence the absorption of the medication itself.

A. restrain the client to prevent self-harm B. assist the client to identify the trigger situation and choose a coping strategy. C. send the client to the crisis intervention unit for 23 hours of observation. D. advise the client to take an anxiolytic to decrease their anxiety level.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Restraining the client to prevent self-harm: While safety is a priority, physical restraint should be a last resort and not the first action taken in this scenario. It may escalate the situation and lead to feelings of loss of control.
B. Assist the client to identify the trigger situation and choose a coping strategy: This is the best initial intervention. Helping the client understand their triggers and encouraging the development of coping strategies can empower them and promote healthier responses to distress. This approach aligns with therapeutic practices that support emotional regulation.

C. Send the client to the crisis intervention unit for 23 hours of observation: While observation may be necessary if the client is at imminent risk of self-harm, it is essential first to explore the underlying issues and coping mechanisms. This action may be considered if the client remains a danger to themselves after initial interventions.

D. Advise the client to take an anxiolytic to decrease their anxiety level: Medications may help with anxiety, but this approach does not address the root of the problem or provide the client with skills to manage their distress. It is more beneficial to focus on therapeutic techniques first.

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In preparation for a client having a Schilling test the nurse should explain that the test:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

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