Exhibits
The nurse is reviewing the physician orders. Which of the following physician’s orders requires priority attention from the nurse? Select all that apply.
Basic metabolic panel
Echocardiogram
CT scan of abdomen
Blood cultures times 2 sets
Chest X-ray
Place on continuous cardiac monitor
CBC
12 lead EKG
Correct Answer : F,H
a) Basic metabolic panel: This is a blood test that measures the levels of electrolytes, glucose, calcium, and kidney function. It is not a priority order for this client because her glucose level is within the normal range and her symptoms are not indicative of electrolyte imbalance or kidney failure.
b) Echocardiogram: This is a test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart and its valves, chambers, and blood flow. It is not a priority order for this client because her chest discomfort may not be related to a cardiac problem and her SpO2 is normal, indicating adequate oxygenation.
c) CT scan of abdomen: This is a test that uses X-rays to create detailed pictures of the organs and structures in the abdomen. It is not a priority order for this client because her abdominal pain is not severe or acute and her nausea and poor appetite may be due to her illness or dialysis.
d) Blood cultures times 2 sets: This is a test that checks for the presence of bacteria or fungi in the blood. It is not a priority order for this client because she does not have signs of infection such as fever, chills, or leukocytosis.
e) Chest X-ray: This is a test that uses X-rays to create images of the lungs and chest wall. It is not a priority order for this client because she does not have respiratory symptoms such as cough, shortness of breath, or wheezes.
f) Place on continuous cardiac monitor: This is an order that requires the nurse to attach electrodes to the client's chest and monitor the heart rate and rhythm continuously. This is a priority order for this client because she has a history of CAD and HTN and reports chest discomfort and lightheadedness, which could indicate a possible myocardial infarction (heart attack) or arrhythmia (irregular heartbeat).
g) CBC: This is a blood test that measures the number and types of blood cells, such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It is not a priority order for this client because she does not have signs of anemia, bleeding, or infection.
h) 12 lead EKG: This is a test that records the electrical activity of the heart from 12 different angles. It can detect abnormalities in the heart's rhythm, conduction, or damage. This is a priority order for this client because she has a history of CAD and HTN and reports chest discomfort and lightheadedness, which could indicate a possible myocardial infarction (heart attack) or arrhythmia (irregular heartbeat).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Fasting blood sugar of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, stress, infection, or medication. Hyperglycemia can cause symptoms such as thirst, hunger, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.
Choice B reason: Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% indicates poor glycemic control over the past three months. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or hemoglobinopathy. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose level over the lifespan of red blood cells, which is about 120 days. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.
Choice C reason: Blood urea nitrogen of 22 mg/dL (7.9 mmol/L) indicates mild azotemia, which is a high level of nitrogenous waste products in the blood. It can be caused by dehydration, high protein intake, gastrointestinal bleeding, or kidney impairment. Azotemia can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. However, it does not affect the safety or accuracy of MRI with contrast.
Choice D reason: Serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL (169 umol/L) indicates moderate renal insufficiency, which is a reduced ability of the kidneys to filter and excrete waste products and fluids from the body. It can be caused by diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, or nephrotoxic drugs. Renal insufficiency can cause symptoms such as edema, anemia, electrolyte imbalance, and acidosis. It can also increase the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, which is a sudden deterioration of kidney function after exposure to contrast media used for imaging studies such as MRI. Contrast-induced nephropathy can lead to acute kidney injury, dialysis requirement, or even death. Therefore, serum creatinine should be reported to the healthcare provider before MRI with contrast to assess the risk and benefit of the procedure and to take preventive measures such as hydration, medication adjustment, or alternative imaging modalities.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Obtaining a soft diet for the client is not the best initial nursing action for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. A soft diet can help reduce the irritation and discomfort of the oral mucosa, but it does not address the underlying cause of the inflammation and infection. The nurse should first assess the client's oral hygiene and provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications.
Choice B reason: Encouraging frequent mouth care is the best initial nursing action for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. Frequent mouth care can help prevent or reduce the severity of mucositis by removing plaque, bacteria, and debris from the oral cavity, and by moisturizing and soothing the oral tissues. The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft toothbrush, a mild toothpaste, and a saline or bicarbonate rinse at least four times a day, and to avoid alcohol, tobacco, spicy, acidic, or hot foods and beverages.
Choice C reason: Cleansing the tongue and mouth with swabs is not the best initial nursing action for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. Swabs can be abrasive and damaging to the oral mucosa, especially if they are dry or contain alcohol or hydrogen peroxide. Swabs can also increase the risk of bleeding, infection, and ulceration of the oral tissues. The nurse should use a soft toothbrush or a gentle sponge to clean the tongue and mouth.
Choice D reason: Administering a topical analgesic per protocol is not the best initial nursing action for a client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis who is describing soreness of the tongue and oral issues. A topical analgesic can provide temporary relief of pain and discomfort, but it does not address the underlying cause of the inflammation and infection. The nurse should first assess the client's oral hygiene and provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. The nurse should also monitor the client's response to the analgesic and report any adverse effects or inadequate pain control.
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