Exhibits
The nurse calls the healthcare provider (HCP) to notify them that the digoxin level is above therapeutic range.
Place the nurse statements in Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation (SBAR) format. Each column must have only one response selected.
Do you want to recheck the digoxin level again tomorrow morning to see if we can restart it? I will keep the client on the monitor to assess for changes in heart rate.
The results came back for the digoxin level. It is currently 2.2 ng/mL (2.8 nmol/L). The client's heart rate was 79 beats/minute. She is alert. There are no signs and symptoms of decreased perfusion at this time.
I am holding the digoxin because the client's digoxin level is too high.
The client is a 61- year-old female with heart failure. She started digoxin 3 days ago.
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"D"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
Rationale:
- Assessment: This describes the findings relevant to the current situation, such as the elevated digoxin level (2.2 ng/mL), the client’s heart rate (79 beats/minute), and the absence of symptoms such as decreased perfusion, indicating that the client is stable for now.
- Background: Provides necessary patient details, such as age, diagnosis (heart failure), and the fact that the client has been on digoxin for three days, so the nurse provides a brief clinical history relevant to the current issue.
- Recommendation: The nurse suggests rechecking the digoxin level the next day to assess if it has returned to the therapeutic range. Suggests an action to the healthcare provider (recheck digoxin level tomorrow) and indicates that the nurse will monitor the client closely for any changes.
- Situation: The nurse is holding the digoxin due to the elevated level, which exceeds the therapeutic range. This introduces the immediate reason for the call, explaining the context of the patient's condition and recent treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Loperamide: Although it treats diarrhea, loperamide would worsen ammonia buildup by reducing bowel transit time. It doesn’t address the underlying hepatic encephalopathy causing confusion in cirrhosis.
B. Furosemide: This loop diuretic is used to manage ascites or edema, not elevated ammonia. It doesn’t treat the neurological symptoms caused by hepatic encephalopathy or improve stool-based ammonia excretion.
C. Lactulose: Lactulose lowers serum ammonia by trapping it in the colon and promoting its excretion through diarrhea. It directly treats confusion related to hepatic encephalopathy, making it the most important intervention here.
D. Intravenous (IV) human albumin: Albumin helps restore oncotic pressure in cases of ascites or low serum protein but does not affect ammonia levels or mental status. It supports fluid balance, not toxin elimination.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
A. Contagious until symptoms subside: Streptococcal pharyngitis is contagious until 24 hours after starting antibiotics, not until all symptoms are gone. This is important for limiting transmission to others in the household or school setting.
B. Sandpaper-like rash: A sandpaper-textured rash is a hallmark sign of scarlet fever, which is a complication of strep throat. It usually begins on the neck or chest and spreads, often feeling coarse to the touch.
C. Peeling and flaking skin in a week: Desquamation, or skin peeling, is common several days after a strep rash subsides, particularly on the hands and feet. This symptom signals the healing phase of scarlet fever.
D. Darkening of skin under arms: Darkened underarm skin is typically linked to acanthosis nigricans, associated with insulin resistance or obesity. It is not seen with streptococcal infections or fever-related conditions.
E. Fever lasting for 7 to 10 days: Fever from strep throat usually resolves quickly within 24–48 hours of initiating antibiotic therapy. Prolonged fever would be atypical and requires further evaluation for complications.
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