Exhibits
A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old male client who had an anterior-posterior spinal fusion 3 days ago. The client is experiencing uncontrolled pain and has not had a bowel movement since the surgery. Which actions should the nurse take to assess the client's progress?
Select all that apply.
Administer a stool softener
Ask the client about their normal bowel routine
Hold the client's next meal
Perform a digital rectal exam
Discontinue morphine
Correct Answer : A,B,D
. Administer a stool softener: This could be a good option to consider, as the client has not had a bowel movement since the surgery. However, the nurse should first consult with the healthcare provider before administering any new medications.
B. Ask the client about their normal bowel routine: This is a good action to take. Understanding the client’s normal bowel routine can provide valuable context for the current situation.
C. Hold the client’s next meal: This may not be necessary at this point. The client’s regular diet has been ordered by the provider, and there’s no indication of nausea, vomiting, or other symptoms that would necessitate holding meals.
D. Perform a digital rectal exam: This could be considered if there’s a concern about impaction or other complications. However, this should only be done after consulting with the healthcare provider.
E. Discontinue morphine: This is not advisable based on the information provided. The client is reporting uncontrolled pain, and morphine has been ordered by the provider for pain management. Any changes to pain medication should be discussed with the healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While monitoring the respiratory rate is important in a patient receiving opioids like hydromorphone, it does not directly indicate whether the patient is receiving an equianalgesic dose of the medication.
Choice B rationale
Pain scale assessment is the most direct way to evaluate if the patient is receiving an equianalgesic dose of hydromorphone. Equianalgesic refers to a dose of one opioid that would provide the same level of pain relief as a given dose of another opioid. If the patient’s pain is well-controlled, it suggests that the dose of hydromorphone is equianalgesic to the dose of the previous opioid.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring blood pressure is important in a patient receiving opioids as these medications can cause hypotension. However, blood pressure does not directly indicate whether the patient is receiving an equianalgesic dose of hydromorphone.
Choice D rationale
While it’s important to monitor the level of consciousness in a patient receiving opioids as these medications can cause sedation, it does not directly indicate whether the patient is receiving an equianalgesic dose of hydromorphone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Observing for signs of depression is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care. This patient has a history of struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension, and is now approved for gastroplasty. Weight management surgery can have significant psychological implications, and patients may experience depression or other emotional issues. Identifying signs of depression and providing appropriate support and resources is crucial for the client’s overall well-being and successful outcomes.
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