br>History and Physical
BP 100/60 mm Hg Pulse 52/min
Respiratory rate 20/min
Temperature 37.2" C (99.0° F)
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who is receiving treatment for heart failure. Based on the
client's chart findings, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? (Click on the "Exhibit" button for additional information about the client. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of data.)
Administer furosemide.
Withhold digoxin.
Withhold spironolactone.
Administer ferrous sulfate.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administering furosemide may also be appropriate for managing heart failure symptoms, but the priority action based on the client's condition is to withhold digoxin.
B. The client's vital signs indicate bradycardia (pulse 52/min), which is a common adverse effect of digoxin, especially in the setting of heart failure. Withholding digoxin is necessary to prevent further exacerbation of bradycardia and potential toxicity.
C. Withholding spironolactone may be considered if there are concerns about electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the priority action in this scenario.
D. Administering ferrous sulfate is not indicated based on the client's chart findings; there is no indication of anemia or iron deficiency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Brushing teeth immediately after eating may exacerbate nausea in some individuals. It is recommended to wait a while after eating before brushing teeth, or rinse the mouth with water.
B. Lying down after meals can worsen symptoms of nausea and reflux. Remaining upright or sitting up after meals may help alleviate symptoms.
C. Drinking large amounts of water with meals may exacerbate feelings of fullness and contribute to nausea. Sipping small amounts of fluids between meals is recommended.
D. Eating a dry carbohydrate, such as crackers or toast, before getting out of bed can help alleviate morning sickness by stabilizing blood sugar levels and absorbing stomach acid.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Rupturing the amniotic sac in the case of complete placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding and is contraindicated.
B. Pain medication may be administered if needed, but the priority is to address the placenta previa and potential complications.
C. Complete placenta previa at 36 weeks gestation with contractions and bleeding is a clear
indication for an emergency cesarean section to prevent maternal hemorrhage and fetal distress.
D. Performing a vaginal exam can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided in cases of placenta previa.
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