br>History and Physical
BP 100/60 mm Hg Pulse 52/min
Respiratory rate 20/min
Temperature 37.2" C (99.0° F)
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who is receiving treatment for heart failure. Based on the
client's chart findings, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? (Click on the "Exhibit" button for additional information about the client. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of data.)
Administer furosemide.
Withhold digoxin.
Withhold spironolactone.
Administer ferrous sulfate.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administering furosemide may also be appropriate for managing heart failure symptoms, but the priority action based on the client's condition is to withhold digoxin.
B. The client's vital signs indicate bradycardia (pulse 52/min), which is a common adverse effect of digoxin, especially in the setting of heart failure. Withholding digoxin is necessary to prevent further exacerbation of bradycardia and potential toxicity.
C. Withholding spironolactone may be considered if there are concerns about electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the priority action in this scenario.
D. Administering ferrous sulfate is not indicated based on the client's chart findings; there is no indication of anemia or iron deficiency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.
A. Gastroenteritis can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can cause lethargy and confusion. This indicates a potentially serious condition requiring immediate attention.
B. While cystic fibrosis requires management, the symptoms described (thick, productive cough and thirst) are not immediately life-threatening.
C. Sickle cell anemia pain is significant but may not require immediate intervention if the client has just received analgesia and is being monitored.
D. While a morning fasting capillary glucose of 185 mg/dL is elevated in a client with diabetes mellitus, it does not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by symptoms of hyperglycemia such as confusion or lethargy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.
A. Ventrogluteal - The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its proximity to large, deep muscles and minimal risk of injury to major nerves and blood vessels.
B. Dorsogluteal - The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and superior gluteal artery.
C. Vastus lateralis - The vastus lateralis is a safe site for intramuscular injections, particularly in infants and young children.
D. Rectus femoris - The rectus femoris muscle is not typically used for intramuscular injections due to its superficial location and proximity to major blood vessels.
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