At the outpatient clinic, the practical nurse (PN) talks to a male client whose spouse is being treated for cancer with chemotherapy. The client tells the PN the reason he does not want a seasonal influenza vaccination is because the vaccination will increase the risk to his spouse. How should the PN respond?
Review the overall prognosis for the spouse who is being treated for cancer.
Explain that he will reduce the risk to his spouse by receiving the vaccination.
Plan his vaccination for a day when his spouse is not receiving chemotherapy.
Determine when his spouse will be finished with her course of treatment.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Reviewing the prognosis for the spouse does not address the immediate concern about the influenza vaccination’s impact on the spouse’s health.
B. Explaining that the influenza vaccination will actually help reduce the risk of transmission of influenza to the spouse undergoing chemotherapy addresses the client’s concern and provides accurate information.
C. Planning the vaccination for a day when the spouse is not receiving chemotherapy does not resolve the underlying issue of the vaccination’s effectiveness and safety.
D. Determining when the spouse will finish chemotherapy is not relevant to the immediate concern of the vaccination and its effects on the spouse’s health.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Breast tenderness is a common side effect of oral contraceptives and is generally not a cause for immediate concern unless accompanied by other symptoms.
B. Left calf pain is a significant finding that could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious condition requiring prompt evaluation and potential treatment to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism.
C. A change in menstrual flow can occur with oral contraceptives but is usually less critical than other symptoms. It should be monitored but does not indicate an immediate problem.
D. A weight gain of 5 pounds is a relatively minor side effect and not as urgent as symptoms suggestive of a serious condition like DVT.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administering ketorolac does not require specific timing in relation to meals. It can be given with or without food, but the key considerations are related to the drug’s effects rather than meal timing.
B. Ketorolac does not require peak and trough serum level monitoring. This practice is more relevant for medications with narrow therapeutic ranges or those requiring precise dosage adjustments, which is not the case for ketorolac.
C. Observing for involuntary movements of the lips and tongue is not a primary concern for ketorolac therapy. This is more relevant to medications like antipsychotics that can cause extrapyramidal symptoms.
D. Assessing the skin daily for signs of bleeding is crucial because ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding due to its effects on platelet function and gastrointestinal mucosa.
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